Wednesday, 5 August 2015

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Insurance Management
Multiple Choices:
1. HMOs charge employers a monthly fee called:
a. A coverage fee
b. The pro rata plan fee
c. The subrogation payment
d. The capitation payment
2. Which of the following alternatives is not a typical dividend option?
a. Cash
b. A lifetime income annuity
c. Reduction of the next premium
d. Accumulation of the next premium
3. Choose the True statement about industrial life insurance.
a. It is less expensive than ordinary life insurance
b. It is more expensive than ordinary life insurance
c. It is also called discount life insurance
d. It is widely used in estate plans
4. Replacement cost at the time of loss less depreciation is the definition of:
a. Actual cash value
b. Fair market value
c. The maximum covered loss
d. The maximum replacement of loss
5. Assets that are readily available to pay claims are called:
a. Admitted assets
b. Accepted assets
c. Real assets
d. Standard operating assets
6. Stare demises means:
a. All things considered
b. Innocent parties prevail
c. It is impolite to stare
d. To stand by decisions
7. In most states the insurance commission is:
a. Impeached
b. Elected
c. Appointed by the government
d. Appointed by the governor
8. The federal law that promotes a safe working environment for workers is:
a. OSHA
b. CERCLA
c. Equal Opportunities Act
d. Superfund
9. The organization that collects data on insurance applicants is the:
a. CBS
b. MIB
c. CIA
d. FCAS
10. The percent of uninsured Americans in 2001 was about:
a. 14 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 4 percent
d. 10 percent

Part Two:
1. What are Moral and Morale hazards?
2. What do you understand by ‘Subsidization’?
3. What are ‘Waiver’ & ‘Estoppel’?
4. Write a short note on ‘Patient’s bill of rights.

1. Do you think that Sparkler Mutual should pay for the loss? Explain your reasons.
2. Did the family’s absence affect the chance of loss in this case?
1. What arguments would you make if you were planning the legal defense of Total Power and Light Company?
2. If you were on the jury in this case, would you award a judgment for damages to Jones? Explain your reasons.
1. If you were a large business with $ 10 million of property, would you want your primary insurer to purchase reinsurance? Explain your reasons. Would you prefer to deal with a small primary insurer who reinsured your risk or a large primary unsure who did not purchase reinsurance?
2. Do you think a college education is necessary to perform the following occupations
effectively?
a. Life insurance agent
b. Loss adjuster
c. Property insurance underwriter
d. Actuary

Risk Management
Multiple Choices:
1. It represents the owner’s stake in the bank & it serves as a cushion for depositors & creditors to
fall back in case of losses.
a. Capital
b. Reserve & Surplus
c. Deposits
d. Borrowings
2. This involves evaluating whether a bank has sufficient liquidity depends in large measure on
the behavior of cash flows under the different conditions.
a. The maturity ladder
b. Alternative Scenarios
c. Measuring liquidity over the chosen time frame
d. Assumptions used in determining cash flows
3. This is the risk of adverse deviations of the mark-to-market value of the trading portfolio, due
to market movements; during the period required to liquidate the transactions.
a. Market Risk
b. Liquidation Risk
c. Market liquidity Risk
d. Credit & counterparty Risk
4.__________ is buying or selling an asset only for the purpose of making profit from movement
of the asset price over a period of time.
a. Arbitrage
b. Derivatives
c. D-mat account
d. Speculation
5. A combination of spot & forward transactions is called a ___________
a. Advances
b. Foreign bills
c. Swap
d. Loans
Examination Paper: Risk Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
6.__________ Money refers to placement of funds beyond overnight for periods not exceeding 14
days.
a. Call money
b. Notice money
c. Term money
d. None
7. A short-term debt market paper issued by corporate, with a maximum maturity of 1 year.
a. Treasury Bills
b. Certificates of deposit
c. Repo
d. Commercial paper
8. It refers to the ability of a business concern to borrow or build up assets, on the basis of a given
capital.
a. Leverages
b. Confirmation
c. DVP
d. Volatility
9.__________ Limits are kept in place to protect the bank from credit risk.
a. Exposure ceiling
b. Stop-loss
c. Organizational controls
d. Limits on trading positions
10. RAROC stands for _____________________.
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between options & Forward contract.
2. Write down the steps which are taken by RBI to encourage the derivative market.
3. What is Basic indicator Approach (BIA)?
4. Write a short note on profitability in Indian Banks.

1. Critically analyze the strategies adopted by Dinesh to retain the leading position.
2. What additional steps Dinesh could have taken to improve the profitability?
1. Evaluate the company’s investment decision with specific reference to the Agra plant.
2. Had you been the finance manager, would you accept Ford Motors proposal? Why?
3. Do you think the finance manager needs to be concerned about the low depreciation
provision? Why?
4. What according to you is the source of finance available to Ramakrishna Motors Ltd in
case it is required to finance the Ford proposal for the Agra plant?
1. “When a steel company goes bankrupt, other companies in the same industry benefit
because they have one less competitor. But when a bank goes bankrupt, other banks do
not necessarily benefit.” Explain this statement.
2. “The existence of deposit insurance makes it particularly important for there to be
regulations on the amount of capital banks hold.” Explain this statement.
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ISO: 14001:2004

1. The ISO 14001 EMS standard only specifies
a) The structure of EMS
b) The working of EMS
c) The behavior of EMS
d) None
2. Which clause addresses the general requirements of an Environment Management System?
a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.3
d) Clause 4.5
3. The ISO 14001 structure, like classic quality management systems, is based on
a) Plan – Check – Do – Act cycle
b) Check – Plan – Do – Act cycle
c) Do – Plan – Check – Act cycle
d) Plan – Do – Check – Act cycle
4. An environmental system
a) Serves as a tool to improve environmental performance
b) Provides a systematic way of managing an organization’s environmental affairs
c) Focuses on continual improvement of the system
d) All above
5. Clause 4.5 of ISO 14001:2004 - …………………… corresponds to the check stage of the PDCA
cycle.
a) Planning
b) Checking
c) Verifying
d) None
6. A process of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvement is overall
environmental performance in line with the organization’s environmental policy is called
a) Environment
b) Continual Improvement
c) Prevention of Pollution
d) Environmental Aspect
7. Which clause states that, ‘the organization shall define and document the scope of its
environmental management system’?
a) Clause 4.5
b) Clause 4.3
c) Clause 4.1
d) Clause 4.2
8. Top managers demonstrate their commitment by articulating the …………………… values.
a) Written values
b) Environmental values
c) Physical values
d) Numeric values
9. Regarding ‘Prevention of Pollution’ the ISO 14001 : 2004 definition incorporates the concept of
a) End – of – pipe
b) End – of process
c) Reduce creation of pollutants
d) Eliminate waste at source
10. The environment policy is a statement of intension. It must be
a) Documented
b) Implemented
c) Maintained
d) All above
11. Planning is covered by
a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.4
d) Clause 4.3
12. Environmental aspects must be identified only for those activities products, and services that fall
within the …………………… .
a) Undefined scope
b) Defined scope
c) Any scope
d) Predefined procedure
13. The most typical approach to identification of environmental aspects involves
a) Examination of individual process
b) Investigate the complete process
c) Audition of environmental policy
d) None
14. Environmental impacts can be
a) Acute
b) Chronic
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
15. Which clause of ISO 14001:2004 states that, ‘within the defined scope of its environmental
management system, the environmental policy is available to the public’?
a) Clause 4.2
b) Clause 4.2.5
c) Clause 4.3.1
d) Clause 4.5
16. If an organization’s environmental management system is to be effective, it must eliminate
a) Beneficial environmental effects
b) Wholly environmental effects
c) Partially environmental effects
d) Adverse environmental effects
17. Environmental Impact states that
a) Any change to the process
b) Effect of the climate
c) Any change to the environment
d) Change the overall management system
18. Clause, which focuses on activities intended to improve the environmental management system,
is
a) Clause 4.4.4
b) Clause 4.5
c) Clause 4.6
d) Clause 4.3
19. The environmental policy statement contains language that only commits to compliance with
a) Legal requirements
b) Other requirements
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
20. Who is the responsible for identifying and documenting the legal & other requirements that apply to the unit’s environmental respects & operations?
a) ISO 14001 coordinator
b) Environmental manager
c) DNC staff
d) All above
21. The legal & other requirements that may be applicable to a unit’s environmental aspects may
include
a) National & International legal requirements
b) Local governmental legal requirements
c) ISO 14001 : 2004
d) All above
22. Clause, which mandates periodic evaluation to see whether an organization is in compliance with
all identified legal requirements, is
a) Clause 4.5.6
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.3.2
d) Clause 4.1
23. The framework for setting and receiving environmental objectives & targets is provided by
a) Environmental Management System
b) Environmental Manager
c) ISO 14001 :2004
d) Environmental Policy
24. Example of objectives that reflect the policy to conserve “natural resources” are
a) Reduce water use
b) Reduce energy use
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
25. Environmental targets describe ……………….. will be to achieve stated objectives.
a) What
b) How much
c) Why
d) When
26. If there is a technology that could reduce a significant impact by 50%, but the organization
discovers that the purchasing price is equal to its entire operating budget. Then which factor
should conclude by the organization that precludes it from purchasing the technology?
a) Financial requirements
b) Legal requirements
c) Technological options
d) Operational requirements
27. In ISO 14001:2004, significant environmental aspects or impacts are the focus of
a) 4.2a clause
b) 4.3.2 clause
c) 4.4.2 clause
d) All above
28. An organization must establish objectives & targets related to
a) Regulatory compliance
b) Continual improvement
c) Compliance with other voluntary required
d) All above
29. A component, which must be determined by the organization in which specific objectives &
targets are to be achieved, is
a) Policy
b) System
c) Time frame
d) Management
30. The single most critical resource, at various levels with an organization is
a) Lack of money
b) Availability of employees
c) Bad goodwill
d) Labor
31. Within the context of an environmental management system, authority pertains to
a) Influence
b) Power
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
32. The environmental policy statement contains language that commits to compliance with legal &
other requirements. This commitment is supported by
a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.3.5
d) Clause 4.4.1
33. Nonconformity as “non – fulfillment of a requirement” is defined in
a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.16
c) Section 3.15
d) Section 2.17
34. In ISO 14001:2004 clause 4.6 is related to
a) Internal audit
b) Monitoring & measurement
c) Evaluation of compliance
d) Management review
35. In any evaluation of worker competence, who may include
a) Temporary workers
b) Contractors
c) Other working on behalf of an organization
d) All above
36. Training needs must be identified for workers who are required to hold a
a) Worker label
b) Award
c) License
d) Any credential
37. Under which section an interested party is defined as a, “person or group concerned with or
affected by the environmental performance of an organization”?
a) Section 2.11
b) Section 4.12
c) Section 3.13
d) Section 1.11
38. ISO Awareness Training is recorded through various means & it is verified by
a) EMS Internal audits
b) Operational Control
c) Control of Records
d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
39. Which clause confirmed an environmental management system audit is neither an environmental
performance audit not a regulatory compliance audit?
a) Clause 4.5.1
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.5.3
d) Both (a) & (b)
40. Sharing of information and exchange of ideas among all organizational functions and levels, is
referred to as
a) Transaction
b) Communication
c) Deal
d) Transmission
41. With regard to its environmental aspects and environmental management system, the organization
shall establish & maintain …………………………… between the various levels & function of
the organization.
a) External communication
b) Internal communication
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
42. Clause, which states that responsibility must be defined, documented, & communicated, is
a) Clause 4.4.1
b) Clause 4.2.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2
43. If an organization provides written information to its all employees, then it is
a) Communicating
b) Conferencing
c) Advertizing
d) Distribution of information
44. ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word mean?
a) A group of members
b) A program organized at the last of the year
c) A group of related actions that contribute to a larger accomplishment
d) A position of rank
45. The example of external party for an organization could be
a) Regulatory agencies
b) Community residents
c) Civic associations
d) All above
46. The environmental management system documentation shall include
a) The environmental policy
b) Objectives
c) Targets
d) All above
47. To establish effective procedure, it is necessary to understand what is meant by the term
communication, which is defined in
a) Clause 4.3.4
b) Clause 4.4.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2
48. An umbrella document, often in the form of manual, that provides an overview of the EMS &
described how each element of ISO 14001 : 2004 is being achieved
a) System description
b) Procedure
c) Work instructions
d) Records
49. Work instructions provide
a) Detailed information for group
b) Information of EMS
c) Relevant data
d) Detailed information for individuals
50. A document explains
a) What must be done
b) Format of the work
c) How should it be done
d) When it should it be done
51. ISO 14001 :2004 states all documents required by the standard must be controlled which include
a) Environmental policy
b) Roles, responsibilities & authorities
c) Operational control procedures
d) All above
52. Documents, those created by others brought into an organization for some purpose, are subject to
somewhat different controls, are
a) Internal documents
b) External documents
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
53. Section, which defines a document as “information and its supporting medium,” is
a) Section 3.11
b) Section 2.10
c) Section 3.5
d) Section 3.4
54. Documents, which always reflect the current version because there is only on “location” (in
computer) at which documents are available and are increasingly used by organization, are
a) Internal documents
b) External documents
c) Electronic documents
d) All above
55. A document, that is current at time of issuance and will be updated as revisions are made, is
called
a) Master lists
b) Controlled copy
c) Uncontrolled copy
d) Validation form
56. If the copies of EMS are downloaded, printed, and/or saved electronically, but they are
considered
a) Uncontrolled
b) Controlled
c) Current
d) None
57. The approaches selected by an organization to control its operations should reflect
a) The nature of the aspect of the interest
b) The media affected by its interest
c) The purpose of the control
d) All above
58. The operations of an organization is affected by its
a) Employees
b) Suppliers
c) Contractors
d) All above
59. Creating a new procedure , an organization can use its existing communication procedure to
fulfill the requirements, imposed by
a) Clause 4.5
b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.4.3
d) Clause 4.1.4
60. When universal waste & recyclable material is collected, stored, it has managed for disposal /
recycle, at
a) Dustbin
b) Recycling center
c) Organization
d) Anywhere
61. Evaluation of environmental impacts should consider
a) Accidental emission to the air
b) Accidental discharges to the water
c) Accidental discharges to the land
d) All above
62. A database, which includes information used to determine the root cause of the incident &
specifies corrective / preventive actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, is
a) Environmental Management System
b) Environmental Incident Reporting System
c) Integrated Contingency System
d) None
63. Clause 4.4.7 is related to
a) Emergency preparedness & response
b) Monitoring & measuring
c) Operational control
d) Control of documents
64. Regarding environmental incidents and emergency, all employees are trained to report
environmental incidents & emergency situations to
a) The Environmental Manager
b) Technical Service Manager
c) Contractor
d) Load Dispatcher
65. An organization, for every significant environmental impact must decide
a) What to measure
b) How to measure
c) When to measure
d) All above
66. Which scales of measurement are used to identify categories of objects or events?
a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales
67. If adverse environmental impacts is labeled as “high – medium – low” as rated “3 – 2 – 1”, then
which scale would be useful to assign values represents things that are better or worse in
comparison others?
a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales
68. Whatever type of measure is selected, that must be
a) Reliable
b) Valid
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
69. Documents that the organization feels are necessary to ensure effective operation & control of
process related to its significant environmental aspects, are required by
a) Clause 4.1.1
b) Clause 4.2.2
c) Clause 4.3.3
d) Clause 4.4.4
70. Data, which inform an organization whether procedure are being followed & whether they are
effective in managing environmental aspects & controlling related environmental impacts.
a) Data obtained form ICP
b) Data obtained from EMS
c) Data obtained through the measurement techniques
d) Data obtained through the measurement & monitoring techniques
71. For ISO 14001 registration, an organization must provide evidence of
a) A procedure for evaluating legal compliance
b) Compliance review by management
c) Corrective action for any noncompliance
d) All above
72. If the organization’s ……………………………… has not identified the noncompliance, the
registrar audit team will ascertain whether the organization had identified & has access to its legal
& other requirements.
a) Internal audits
b) External audit
c) Registration audit
d) None
73. Who will first attempt to determine whether the audited organization’s internal audit team
identified the same noncompliance?
a) Audit team
b) Manager
c) Registrar Audit Team
d) Auditor
74. If organization has identified the requirement with which its fails to comply, the registrar audit
team will question, that
a) Why evaluation of compliance did not reveal this efficiency
b) Why evaluation of compliance is not suitable
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
75. Clause, which says that, ‘the organization shall keep records of the results of the periodic
evaluation, is
a) Clause 4.5.2.1
b) Clause 4.5.2.2
c) Clause 4.4.2
d) Clause 4.4.3
76. Who is responsible for the scheduling & completion of quarterly audits of objectives & targets &
periodic audits of selective environmental compliance issues?
a) Technical Services Manager
b) Satellite point Manager
c) EMS Manager
d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
77. Preventive action is defined as
a) Action to eliminate the causing of a potential nonconformity
b) Action to eliminate the cause of a potential conformity
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
78. Identification of nonconformities tends to be considered in conjunction with
a) Environmental Management System
b) EMS Audits
c) List of nonconformities
d) None
79. An organization must take action to mitigate environmental harm that already resulted from the
a) Conformity
b) Mistake
c) Nonconformity
d) Process
80. When corrective or preventive action is taken, the …………………….. will review the action at
an appropriate time to determine the results of the action.
a) Technical Services Manager
b) ISO 14001 Coordinator
c) Suppliers
d) Environmental Manager/ Designee
81. Prevention action defined as “action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity” in
section
a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.15
c) Section 3.3
d) None
82. ……………………. provide information that confirms the occurrence of activities or verifies
performance relative to a fixed or recommended standard.
a) Data
b) Files
c) Records
d) Diaries
83. The ISO 14001 :2004 states explicitly that records must be kept
a) Compliance, training & awareness
b) Monitoring & measurement
c) Internal audit
d) All above
84. Internal audit is defined in
a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.5.5
c) Clause 4.4.1
d) Clause 4.4.3
85. Records should be in ink, rather than pencil, to prevent
a) Smudging
b) Darkness
c) Readability
86. The linkage between an activity and an associated record should be clear, this feature of record is
known as
a) Identifiable
b) Legible
c) Traceable
d) All above
87. Which section defines an auditor is a “person with the competence to conduct an audit”?
a) Section 3.14
b) Section 3.17
c) Section 3.1
d) Section 3.4
88. Any record, electronic or hard copy, identified on the environmental records retention schedule
that demonstrates conformance with EMS & legal & other requirements, is known as
a) Environmental record
b) Environmental aspect
c) Information
d) Document
89. The ……………….. is used to determine if it is time to destroy an environmental record.
a) EMS List
b) Employee’s Detail List
c) Records Retention List
d) None
90. An environmental management system audit is
a) Environmental performance audit
b) Regulatory Compliance Audit
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
91. An EMS audit verifies that appropriate procedures are in place & functioning to ensure
conformity with
a) ISO 14001 : 2004
b) An organization’s document
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
92. The internal audit procedure must address
a) Responsibilities
b) Audit Criteria
c) Frequency
d) All above
93. Smaller organizations may be unable to delicate the resources required for a sufficient no. of
auditors. In such a circumstance, an organization might borrow auditors from
a) Corporate headquarters
b) Consortia
c) Consulting firms
d) Sister facilities
94. Information that is verifiable & is based on facts obtained through observation measurement,
testing, or other means, is
a) Nonconformance
b) Conformance
c) Objective evidence
d) None
95. Input to management review shall include
a) Results of internal audits
b) Communication(s) from external interested parties, including complaints
c) Status of corrective & preventive actions
d) All above
96. Management review should be viewed as
a) Strategic
b) Potential
c) Tactical in Nature
d) None
97. Decision – makers, who contribute to the management review process & provide the authority &
resources to address recommended improvements, are
a) Managers
b) Employees
c) Contractors
d) Executives
98. The reason given by SMEs for implementing ISO 14001 is
a) Customer requirements
b) Continuous improvement or environmental performance
c) Improved regulatory compliance
d) All above
99. The small organization, those with one to five employees, sometimes referred to as
a) Medium enterprises
b) Micro enterprises
c) Mini enterprises
d) Super enterprises
100. Continual improvement as a “recurring process of enhancing the environmental management
system in order to achieve improvements in overall environmental performance consistent with
the organization’s environment policy”, is defined by
a) Section 3.1
b) Section 3.14
c) Section 3.17
d) Section 3.2
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ISO: 9001: 2008
Multiple Choices
1. A desired result is achieved more efficiently when activities & related resources are managed as a
a) Program
b) Process
c) Aim
d) Project
2. An advantage of process approach is
a) Internal working
b) External management
c) Ongoing control
d) None
3. A quality management system has confirmed to ISO 9001:2008 is aimed to achieve
a) Minimum quality
b) Best quality
c) Maximum profit
d) Customer satisfaction
4. If exclusions are not limited to requirements with clause 7, then which action is taken against
claims of confirmed
a) Claims of conformity to this international standard are not acceptable
b) Claims of conformity to this international standard are acceptable
c) Modify those exclusions
d) None
5. Whenever the term “product” is used, it can also mean
a) Cost
b) Quality
c) Profit
d) Service
6. A process that the organization needs for its quality management system and which the
organization chooses to have performed by an external party, is
a) Outsourced process
b) Internal process
c) External process
d) None
7. To determine how all of the process relate to each other, process must be
a) Mapped
b) Flowcharted
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
8. The term “quality” can be used with adjective such as
a) Poor
b) Good
c) Excellent
d) All above
9. Which clause requires the organization to identify and prepare documents necessary for effective
planning, operation, and control of its processes?
a) Clause 3.2
b) Clause 1.4
c) Clause 4.2.1d
d) Clause 2.4e
10. There is no requirement to create a documented procedure for describing the process of creating a quality policy in
a) Clause 4.2.3
b) Clause 8.5.2
c) Clause 5.3
d) Clause 7.1
11. The extent of quality management system documentation dependent on the
a) Size & type of organization
b) Complexity & interaction of the organization’s process
c) Competency of the organization’s people
d) All above
12. According to clause 3.7.2, the document is defines as
a) Information and supporting medium
b) Product
c) Report
d) Data
13. Top management is required to ensure that customer requirements are
a) Determined
b) Understood
c) Met
d) All above
14. According to clause 3.3.5, the “customer” term is defined as
a) Organization or person that receives product
b) A person that sells a product
c) Purchaser
d) None
15. Clause, which requires that top management establish the quality policy is
a) Clause 5.3
b) Clause 5.1
c) Clause 3.2
d) Clause 4.3
16. Once the policy is established the organization must _________________ it.
a) Deploy
b) Implement
c) Recreate
d) Verify
17. The quality policy describes overall interactions and direction of an organization related to
quality as formally expressed by top management. This definition is defined by
a) Clause 3.2.4
b) Clause 3.3.1
c) Clause 3.1.1
d) Clause 3.2.7
18. Clause, which requires management of change so that the integrity of the quality management
system is maintained when the system is change, is
a) Clause 3.2.4
b) Clause 5.4.2
c) Clause 3.2.1
d) Clause 4.5.3
19. According to clause 5.2, who is responsible to ensure that customer requirements are determined
and met with the aim of enhancing customer satisfaction?
a) Top management
b) Employees of the organization
c) Low level manager
d) None
20. An activity defined in clause 3.8.7 undertaken to determine the suitability, adequacy &
effectiveness of the subject matter to achieve established objective, is
a) Process
b) Procedure
c) Review
d) Requirement
21. Clause, which requires that personnel are competent, is
a) Clause 6.2.4
b) Clause 6.2.1
c) Clause 5.2.3
d) Clause 6.5
22. According to clause 3.1.6, competency is defined as
a) Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills
b) To compare with other organization
c) Improvement in quality
d) None
23. The records that are created by the activities to ensure competency may need to be enrolled per
clause 4.2.2, which is related to
a) Control of documents
b) Control of records
c) Quality Management System
d) Monitoring & Measurement
24. The organization need to identify what classroom training, seminars, on-the-job, or other training is necessary so that
a) Top managers involved in Quality Management System is competent
b) Low level managers involved in Quality Management System is competent
c) Every employee involved in Quality Management System is competent
d) All above
25. From the following in which part it is common practice to conduct training evaluation?
a) Evaluation of the training immediately upon completion
b) Evaluation of the training received several weeks after the training
c) Evaluation of the skills developed several months after the training
d) All above
26. Which clause defines the infrastructure as system of facilities, equipment & services needed for
the operation of an organization?
a) Clause 3.6.1
b) Clause 3.3.3
c) Clause 3.3.1
d) Clause 3.3.2
27. The work environment of an organization can be considered to be a combination of
a) Internal & external events
b) Human & process
c) Customers & consumers
d) Human & physical factors
28. Which physical factor can affect the work environment?
a) Heat
b) Hygiene
c) Humidity
d) All above
29. From the following which clause provides the essence of the use of the process approach?
a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 8.1
c) Clause 7.1
d) All above
30. According to clause 3.4.2, the product is defined as
a) Result of a process
b) A service
c) Software
d) Hardware
31. The planning for realization processes covered in _________________ should define the records
the organization will keep during the process of determining customer requirements.
a) Clause 7.5
b) Clause 7.1
c) Clause 8.3
d) Clause 2.8
32. The obligation assumed by the organization includes not only the products defined but also
ancillary items such as
a) Conformance to stated delivery dates
b) Adherence to referenced external standards
c) Compliance with the commercial terms & condition applicable to the order, contract,
quote or tender
d) All above
33. According which clause, the organizations have the ability to meet requirements?
a) Clause 6.2.2
b) Clause 7.2.2
c) Clause 8.2.2
d) Clause 5.2.2
34. A critical activity generally involves several functions & levels in an organization, is
a) Sell the product
b) Improve the quality
c) Determination of customer requirements
d) None
35. The arrangement identified & implemented should be appropriate for the organization in terms of
a) Its products
b) Its orders
c) Its contracts
d) All above
36. Clause, which applies to all product type, to all market sectors, and to organization of all sizes, is
a) Clause 7.2.1
b) Clause 6.5.2
c) Clause 3.5.3
d) Clause 2.6.2
37. The intent of clause ____________ is to make sure that the organization plans and controls
design and development projects.
a) Clause 6.4
b) Clause 7.2.1
c) Clause 7.3.1
d) Clause 5.4.2
38. If the design and development processes are planned and controlled well, then the projects will be completed
a) On time
b) Within budget
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
39. The output from the design and development process is expected to include an information that
relates to
a) Producing
b) Creating
c) Manufacturing
d) Processing
40. According to clause 4.2.2, inputs relating to product requirements shall be determined and records
maintained. These inputs shall include
a) Functional and performance requirements
b) Applicable statuary & regulatory requirements
c) Where applicable, information derived form previous similar designs
d) All above
41. Which clause defines the requirements specification for new product & maintains the records?
a) Clause 7.3.2
b) Clause 8.7.2
c) Clause 6.4.1
d) Clause 5.4.3
42. Which work should not begin until a document exits in form acceptable to all who have
responsibility for contributing to product specification?
a) Designing
b) Development
c) Production
d) Selling
43. Design and development output be provided in a way that can be used for
a) Identification
b) Justification
c) Validation
d) Verification
44. Which statement is true?
a) Validation is usually performed after successful design & development verification
b) Verification is usually performed after successful design & development validation
c) Validation & verification both are same
d) Validation & verification both are performed simultaneously
45. Which clause requires that the organization shall ensure that purchased product conforms to
specified purchase requirements?
a) Clause 8.2.1
b) Clause 7.4.1
c) Clause 6.5.2
d) Clause 4.4.1
46. Clause 7.4.1 requires records of the results of supplier evaluations and subsequent follow-up
actions, with specific reference to
a) Clause 5.2
b) Clause 4.2.4
c) Clause 5.3.1
d) Clause 7.2.1
47. Clause, which requires the organization defined a process for verifying that purchased product
conforms to defined requirements, is
a) Clause 7.4.3
b) Clause 7.4.2
c) Clause 7.4.1
48. Clause, which requires to pertain when verification activities are to be performed at the supplier’s
premises, is
a) Clause 7.4.3
b) Clause 7.4.2
c) Clause 7.4.1
d) Clause 7.4.5
49. Which clause requires a process to ensure that purchasing documents adequacy state all of the
requirements for the items to be purchased?
a) Clause 7.4.1
b) Clause 7.4.2
c) Clause 7.4.3
d) Clause 7.4.4
50. If purchased material has high actual potential impact on either the final product on the
realization processes, then
a) No need to control it
b) Less control is required
c) More robust control is required
d) None
51. Determination the nature of the control is the responsibility of
a) Suppliers
b) Customers
c) Employees
d) Organization
52. Which clause addresses the processes necessary for an organization to produce and deliver
product & services?
a) Clause 6.4.1
b) Clause 5.2.3
c) Clause 7.5.1
d) Clause 7.2.3
53. Documentation requirements for the overall quality management system are stated in
a) Clause 4
b) Clause 5
c) Clause 6
d) Clause 7
54. The focus of clause 7.5.1, ‘control of production and service provision’, is the key concept that
processed need to be carried out under
a) Uncontrolled conditions
b) Controlled conditions
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
55. If changes are made to process equipment, the product design, the materials used to produce the
product or to other significant factors such as new personnel, then the process often requires
a) Reevaluation
b) Revalidation
c) Reproduction
d) Recertification
56. Validation should be carried out at appropriate ________________ to respond to changes in
market requirements, regulations, or standard in addition to assuring the continued acceptable
performance of processes.
a) Intervals
b) Checkouts
c) Positions
d) Timings
57. Which one is true?
a) Identification and traceability are same
b) Identification and traceability are not same
c) Identification and traceability are not related
d) Identification and traceability are separate bur related issues
58. Identification and traceability is related to
a) Clause 7.5.3
b) Clause 7.5.2
c) Clause 8.2.1
d) Clause 7.5.1
59. Clause, which provides the framework for the establishment and maintenance of a measurement
system, is
a) Clause 7.1
b) Clause 6.5
c) Clause 7.6
d) Clause 5.6
60. According to clause 8.1 ‘Measurement, Analysis & Improvement’, from the following which is
the responsibility of the organization?
a) What it needs to monitor & measure
b) Where to monitor & measure
c) What analysis should be performed
d) All above
61. Which clause monitored the customer satisfaction information?
a) Clause 7.2.1
b) Clause 8.2.1
c) Clause 8.2.5
d) Clause 6.2.4
62. Internal audit of the quality management system remains grouped with clauses for monitoring
information relation to __________________.
a) Customer requirements
b) Customer perceptions
c) Customer satisfaction
d) All above
63. Clause 8.4, ______________________, of ISO 9001:2008, which could be a source of
information in identifying the key process to monitor.
a) Monitoring & measurement
b) Control of records
c) Analysis of data
d) Customer satisfaction
64. When process monitoring or measurements indicate that the desired results are not being
achieved, the process may need ________________ to identify and eliminate root causes.
a) Corrective action
b) Reproduction
c) Modification
d) Perceptive action
65. Monitoring & Measurement of a product is related to
a) Clause 8.2.4
b) Clause 7.2.4
c) Clause 6.2.1
d) Clause 7.3.2
66. For purchased material, clause ___________, ‘verification of purchased product’, requires the
organization to identify and implement verification activities.
a) Clause 7.5.1
b) Clause 8.2.3
c) Clause 8.2.4
d) Clause 7.4.3
67. Which clause requires establishing process to ensure that product that does not confirm to
requirement is identified and controlled to prevent unintended use or delivery?
a) Clause 8.2
b) Clause 8.3
c) Clause 7.5
d) Clause 6.4
68. Is services are the product of an organization, clause 8.3 may have ___________ applicability.
a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) Complete
69. A(n) _______________ shall be established to define the controls & related responsibilities and
authorities for dealing with non conforming product.
a) Documented procedure
b) Report
c) File
d) Information
70. When nonconforming product is corrected it shall be subject to _________________ to
demonstrate conformity to the requirements.
a) Revalidation
b) Re verification
c) Review
d) Implement
71. The organization should consider documenting a process for addressing situations in which
_____________ is detected after delivery to or use by a customer has occurred.
a) Nonconformity product
b) Conformity product
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
72. The analysis of data shall provide information relating to
a) Customer satisfaction
b) Conformity to product requirements
c) Suppliers
d) All above
73. The clause, which requires the organization to collect & analyze appropriate data to determine the
suitability & effectiveness of the quality management system, is
a) Clause 8.1
b) Clause 8.2
c) Clause 8.3
d) Clause 8.4
74. Clauses, which are linked in the sense that the organization should function on a closed-loop
bases, are
a) Clauses 5, 6 and 7
b) Clauses 6,7 and 8
c) Clauses 5,7 and 8
d) Clauses 4,5 and 6
75. The _______________ is a powerful tool for driving continual improvement.
a) QMS
b) Analysis of Data
c) Modify data
d) Improvement
76. Collecting of data without developing the data into useful information is a (n) _______________
of organizational resources.
a) Product
b) Service
c) Tool
d) Waste
77. The purpose of analysis is to convert data into
a) Usable information
b) Relevant information
c) Product
d) None
78. The organization should seriously consider documenting expectation for continual improvement
at least in the area of data related to
a) Customer satisfaction
b) Conforming to product requirements
c) Opportunities for preventive action
d) All above
79. The appropriate information on customer satisfaction on and/ or dissatisfaction may depend upon the ______________ of an organization relationship with its customer.
a) Nature
b) Behavior
c) Service
d) All above
80. The organization shall continually improve the effectiveness of the QMS through the use of the
a) Quality policy
b) Quality objectives
c) Audit results
d) All above
81. The setting of objectives consistent with a quality policy containing a commitment to continual
improvement of the effectiveness of the QMS is required in
a) Clause 5.4.1
b) Clause 5.4.3
c) Clause 5.4.4
d) Clause 6.2.1
82. The intent of clause _____________ is to achieve an integrated improvement mentality
throughout the organization.
a) Clause 8.5.4
b) Clause 8.4.1
c) Clause 8.5.1
d) Clause 8.3.2
83. ________________ involves the taking action to eliminate the causes of nonconformities.
a) Corrective action
b) Preventive action
c) Improvement
d) Analysis of data
84. Clause, which is related to requirements for customer communications states that arrangement
must be made with customer relating to complains, is
a) Clause 8.3
b) Clause 8.5.2
c) Clause 7.2.3
d) Clause 6.2.1
85. In preventive action the organization is required to identify how it will eliminate the “causes” of
potential nonconformities in order to prevent their
a) Resources
b) Occurrence
c) Visibility
d) None
86. FMECA stands for
a) Failure modes, effect, and critical analysis
b) Failure modes, eliminate and cancel analysis
c) Foreign money exchange and complete association
d) None
87. Which clause requires records of preventive action results with specific reference to clause 4.2.4
for control of records generated?
a) Clause 8.4.1
b) Clause 7.2.4
c) Clause 8.5.2
d) Clause 8.5.3
88. The success or failure of the Quality Management System implementation depends on
a) How the requirements are implemented
b) The process used for implementation
c) The midset of top managers & other employees
d) All above
89. Planning for continual improvement described in ISO 9001:2008,
a) Clause 5.4.2
b) Clause 8.1
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
90. Active and serious management review of the entire loop required in
a) Clause 4.2
b) Clause 5.6
c) Clause 7.2
d) Clause 8.6
91. A desired result is achieved more efficiently when activities and related resources are manage as
a
a) Process
b) Project
c) Individual work
d) Plan
92. A process is nothing more than a collection of
a) Related activities
b) Interrelated activities
c) Modules
d) Individual task
93. ___________________ provide requirements to the process and feedback how well those
requirements have been met.
a) Consumers
b) Customers
c) Suppliers
d) Managers
94. A system is a collection of _________________ with a common set of objectives & outputs.
a) Interrelated process
b) Interrelated activities
c) Hardware
d) Software
95. The approach in which audits all of the process, each major process can be ensure compliance
with ISO 9001:2008 called
a) Horizontal audit
b) Vertical audit
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
96. Vertical audits can be used for ________________ areas that have major parts of the overall
system.
a) Process
b) Planning
c) Functional
d) Improvement
97. In which sector ISO 9001 certification is frequently used to increase confidence in the products & services provided by certified organization?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
98. The key objective of the ISO/IEC sector policy is
a) Maximize the use of generic QMS international standards
b) Support international trade & remove trade barriers
c) Support developing countries
d) All above
99. Records of audits and their results are described in
a) Clause 8.2.2
b) Clause 8.2.4
c) Clause 7.5
d) Clause 8.3.4
100. The basis used for calibration is defined in
a) Clause 7.3
b) Clause 7.6a
c) Clause 7.5.2a
d) Clause 7.3.4

Journalistic Ethics
Multiple Choices:
1. The correspondence or disquotational theory of truth is a ____________ theory.
a. Formal
b. Informal
c. Positive
d. Negative
2. The use of another persons thinking or writing without explicit acknowledgement or its original
source is known as
a. Credibility
b. Originality
c. Plagiarism
d. Source
3. The effort to bridge the fact-value gap or blur the distinction between facts & values, is referred
to as the
a. Naturalistic Fallacy
b. Principia Ethic
c. Pervasive division
d. None
4. According to moral philosophers the relation between facts& values as one
a. Aesthetic Facts
b. Artistic Facts
c. Transcend Facts
d. None
5. Out of the following which falsehood in news reporting are the work of rogue reporters whose
professional misconduct is morally intolerable.
a. Countless Falsehood
b. Deliberate Falsehood
c. Inadvertent Falsehood
d. Erroneous Falsehood
State True/False:
6. The guidance needed for making correct relevance judgment is a common sense.
7. The remote control device on a modern television is a type of a behavioral analysts dream which
is now comes true.
8. Advertisers are journalists and so can be held responsible for adhering to the principles of
journalistic ethics.
9. A totalitarian government is first & foremost a regime that takes control of every aspect of the
news media.
10. It is important for a theoretical ethical philosopher to distinguish between moral & prudential
considerations.

Part Two:
1. What are the principles for controlling censorship?
2. What is Moral & Prudential Reasoning?
3. List the Guidelines for appeals to confidentiality?
4. Define the legal and moral rights of Journalistic.

1. Would the medical emergency described warrant disclosing the identity of a confidential
informant? Why or why not?
2. What criteria might reasonably be applied in order to decide what kind or what scope of potential
emergency justifies disclosing a confidential informants identity? How can we prevent the
acknowledgement of such possibilities from degenerating into a slippery slope, the outcome of
which is to undermine the use of any and all confidential informants?
1. What were the legal issues involved in this interesting case? How, if at all, do they relate to the
morality of respect for privacy by journalists?
2. Do you agree with the OK! Solicitors position that the second decision in this case deprives
journalists of protection for their prior agreements to exclusive publication rights? What is the
exact legal principle by which the court reached its judgment, as reflected in The Guardian
report? Can it be justified on grounds of professional journalistic ethics? If so, how? If not, why
not?
1. What is the significance for professional journalists ad journalistic ethics of evaluations of the
relative freedom of the press in different societies
2. Define the Privacy in a public world? Explain the constitutional basis for the right to privacy?
Mass Communication
Multiple Choices:
1. __________ Communication deals with public outside the organization.
a. External Communication
b. Internal Communication
c. Diagonal Communication
d. Vertical Communication
2. It concerns the lifestyles and activities of people such as movie attendance, hobbies, and types of
physical exercise
a. Geographics
b. Demographics
c. Psychographics
d. None
3. Technique of sending magazines free to individuals within an industry to increase identification
with an organization
a. Association Magazines
b. Controlled Circulation
c. Conglomerate
d. Association Management
4. The Connection made when a magazine runs a story about a product advertised in the magazine.
a. Package deals
b. Tie-ins
c. Publishers
d. Editorial
5. Writing illustrating and designing publications with a personal computer is known as
a. Desktop Publishing
b. Distributor
c. Wholesalers
d. Retailers
6. A boxlike mechanism used to view short films during the late 1800s
a. Nickeleon
b. Broadcast TV
c. Kinetoscope
d. Computer
7. The technique of joining pieces of film or of digitally manipulating images in a creative process.
a. Editing
b. Oligopoly
c. Processing
d. Writing
8. Marketing strategy common in the 1930s and 1940s that required theaters to book movie before
they were produced.
a. A& B pictures
b. Block booking
c. Blind booking
d. Vertical Integration
9. Department that controls movement of programming through the day, logs what goes on the air,
& supplies information for billing advertisers.
a. Modulators
b. Traffic
c. Demodulator
d. Decoding
10. A favorite television format of the 1950s that consisted of stage plays produced for TV is
a. Blacklist
b. Fellow Travelers
c. Quiz show
d. Anthology

Part Two:
1. Differentiate between Broadcast Station and Cable System.
2. Write a short note on Mass Communication?
3. Define the Interaction of supply and demand?
4. Explain the development of Mass advertising?
1. Schorr maintains that he has a journalistic obligation, which is to say responsibility, to disclose
circumstances that could “color” his views on a politician. What does he mean by this? Is he right
to say that that he has a moral responsibility as a Journalist to reveal such facts to his readers?
Why or why not?
2. From what might Schorrs sense of journalistic obligation derive? What is its source?

1. Are there any circumstances under which it is morally justified to impose censorship? What,
according to Fisk, are the likely effects of censuring the new Iraqi press?
2. When a society is relatively stable and well-established, there are always remedied for libel and
inaccuracies in reportage. A society in crisis, like Iraq during the American occupation after the
Second Gulf War, does not have such mechanisms in place. Do these facts provide the basis for a
reasonable defense of the decision to censure the press?
1. What is the threat of Regulation? Explain the types of media regulation?
2. Define the approach to mass communication research? Also discuss the types of research
methods and the role of theory in research?
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