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Financial
Management
Part one:
Multiple choices:
1. The approach focused mainly on the financial problems of
corporate enterprise
a. Ignored non-corporate enterprise
b. Ignored working capital financing
c. External approach
d. Ignored routine problems
2. These are those shares, which can be redeemed or repaid to
the holders after a lapse of the
stipulated period
a. Cumulative preference shares
b. Non-cumulative preference shares
c. Redeemable preference shares
d. Perpetual shares
3. This type of risk arise from changes in environmental
regulations, zoning requirements, fees,
licenses and most frequently taxes
a. Political risk
b. Domestic risk
c. International risk
d. Industry risk
4. It is the cost of capital that is expected to raise funds to
finance a capital budget or investment
proposal
a. Future cost
b. Specific cost
c. Spot cost
d. Book cost
5. This concept is helpful in formulating a sound &
economical capital structure for a firm
a. Financial performance appraisal
b. Investment evaluation
c. Designing optimal corporate capital structure
d. None
6. It is the minimum required rate of return needed to justify
the use of capital
a. From investors
b. Firms point
c. Capital expenditure point
d. Cost of capital
7. It arises when there is a conflict of interest among owners,
debenture holders and the management
a. Seasonal variation
b. Degree of competition
c. Industry life cycle
d. Agency costs
8. Some guidelines on shares & debentures issued by the
government that are very important for the
constitution of the capital structure are
a. Legal requirement
b. Purpose of finance
c. Period of finance
d. Requirement of investors
9. It is that portion of an investments total risk that results
from change in the financial integrity of
the investment
a. Bull- bear market risk
b. Default risk
c. International risk
d. Liquidity risk
10. _____________ measure the systematic risk of a security that
cannot be avoided through
diversification
a. Beta
b. Gamma
c. Probability distribution
d. Alpha
Part Two:
1. What is Annuity kind of cash flow?
2. What do understand by Portfolio risk?
3. What do you understand by ‘Loan Amortization’?
4. What is the Difference between NPV and IRR?
Section B: Case lets (40 marks)
Case let 1
Question:
1. Which type of financing is appropriate to each firm?
2. What types of securities must be issued by a firm which is on
the growing stage in order to meet
the financial requirements?
Case let 2
Question:
1. How would you judge the potential profit of Bajaj Electronics
on the first year of sales to Booth
Plastics and give your views to increase the profit.
2. Suggestion regarding Credit limit. Should it be approved or
not, what should be the amount of
credit limit that electronics give to Booth Plastics.
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
1. Honey Well Company is contemplating to liberalize its collection
effort. Its present sales are Rs.
10 lakh, its average collection period is 30 days, its expected
variable cost to sales ratio is 85 per
cent and its bad debt ratio is 5 per cent. The Company’s cost of
capital is 10 per cent and tax are
is 40 per cent. He proposed liberalization in collection effort
increase sales to Rs. 12 lakh
increases average collection period by 15 days, and increases
the bad debt ratio to 7 percent.
Determine the change in net profit.
2. Explain the concept of working capital. What are the factors
which influence the working capital?
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Human Resource
Management
Part One:
Multiple choices:
1. It is a cultural attitude marked by the tendency to regard
one’s own culture as superior to others
a. Geocentrism
b. Polycentrism
c. Ethnocentrism
d. Egocentrism
2. It is the systemic study of job requirements & those
factors that influence the performance of
those job requirements
a. Job analysis
b. Job rotation
c. Job circulation
d. Job description
3. This Act provides an assistance for minimum statutory wages
for scheduled employment
a. Payment of Wages Act, 1936
b. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
c. Factories Act, 1948
d. Payment of Gratuity act, 1972
4. __________ is the actual posting of an employee to a specific
job
a. Induction
b. Placement
c. Attrition
d. None
5. Broadening an individual’s knowledge, skills & abilities
for future responsibilities is known as
a. Training
b. Development
c. Education
d. Mentoring
6. Change that is designed and implemented in an orderly and
timely fashion in anticipation of
future events
a. Planned change
b. Technology change
c. Structural change
d. None
7. It is a process for setting goals and monitoring progress
towards achieving those goals
a. Performance appraisal
b. Performance gap
c. Performance factor
d. Performance management system
8. A method which requires the rates to provide a subjective
performance evaluation along a scale
from low to high
a. Assessment centre
b. Checklist
c. Rating scale
d. Monitoring
9. It is the sum of knowledge, skills, attitudes, commitment,
values and the liking of the people in an
organization
a. Human resources
b. Personal management
c. Human resource management
d. Productivity
10. A learning exercise representing a real-life situation where
trainees compete with each other to
achieve specific objectives
a. Executive development
b. Management game
c. Programmed learning
d. Understudy
Part Two:
1. Explain the importance of Career Planning in industry.
2. Write the features of HRM.
3. Briefly explain the concept of Performance Appraisal.
4. Explain On-Job and Off Job Training.
Section B: Case lets (40 marks)
Questions
1. Should benching be a matter of concern at Delta?
2. What are the risks involved in moving from a project-centric
mode to a mix of projects and
products?
Case let 2
Question
1. Discuss that technological breakthrough has brought a radical
changes in HRM.
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
1. Several types of interviews are commonly used depending on
the nature & importance of the
position to be filled within an organization. Explain the
different types of Interviews.
2. Explain the legal provisions regarding safety of workers.
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Managerial
Economics
Section A: Objective Type (30 marks)
Multiple choices:
1. It is a study of economy as a whole
a. Macroeconomics
b. Microeconomics
c. Recession
d. Inflation
2. A comprehensive formulation which specifies the factors that
influence the demand for the
product
a. Market demand
b. Demand schedule
c. Demand function
d. Income effect
3. It is computed when the data is discrete and therefore
incremental changes is measurable
a. Substitution effect
b. Arc elasticity
c. Point elasticity
d. Derived demand
4. Goods & services used for final consumption is called
a. Demand
b. Consumer goods
c. Producer goods
d. Perishable goods
5. The curve at which satisfaction is equal at each point
a. Marginal utility
b. Cardinal measure of utility
c. The Indifference Curve
d. Budget line
6. Costs that are reasonably expected to be incurred in some
future period or periods
a. Future costs
b. Past costs
c. Incremental costs
d. Sunk costs
7. Condition when the firm has no tendency either to increase or
to contract its output
a. Monopoly
b. Profit
c. Equilibrium
d. Market
8. Total market value of all finished goods & services
produced in a year by a country’s residents is
known as
a. National income
b. Gross national product
c. Gross domestic product
d. Real GDP
9. The sum of net value of goods & services produced at
market prices
a. Government expenditure
b. Product approach
c. Income approach
d. Expenditure approach
10. The market value of all the final goods & services made
within the borders of a nation in an year
a. Globalization
b. Subsidies
c. GDP
d. GNP
Part Two:
1. Define ‘Arc Elasticity’.
2. Explain the law of ‘Diminishing marginal returns’.
3. What is ‘Prisoner’s Dilemma’, of non cooperative game?
4. What is ‘Third degree Discrimation’?
Section B: Case lets (40 marks)
Case let 1
Questions
1. Plot the demand schedule and draw the demand curve for the
data given for Marijuana in the case
above.
2. On the basis of the analysis of the case above, what is your
opinion about legalizing marijuana in
Canada?
Case let 2
Questions
1. Is Indian companies running a risk by not giving attention to
cost cutting?
2. Discuss whether Indian Consumer goods industry is growing at
the cost of future profitability.
3. Discuss capital and labour productivity in engineering
context and pharmaceutical industries in
India.
4. Is textile industry in India performing better than its
global competitors?
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
1. Free trade promotes a mutually profitable regional division
of labour, greatly enhances the
potential real national product of all nations and makes
possible higher standards of living all
over the globe.” Critically explain and examine the statement.
2. What role does a decision tree play in business decision-making?
Illustrate the choice between
two investment projects with the help of a decision tree
assuming hypothetical conditions about
the states of nature, probability distribution, and
corresponding pay-offs.
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Marketing
Management
Part one:
Multiple choices:
1. It is a concept where goods are produced without taking into
consideration the choices or tastes of
customers
a. Marketing mix
b. Production concept
c. Marketing concept
d. Relationship marketing
2. It involves individuals who buys products or services for
personal use and not for manufacture or
resale
a. Environment analysis
b. Macro environment
c. Micro environment
d. Consumer
3. It is the groups of people who interact formally or
informally influencing each other’s attitudes&
behavior
a. Consumer behavior
b. Culture
c. Reference groups
d. Primary groups
4. The concept of the product that passes through various
changes in its total life known as
a. Product life cycle
b. Line stretching
c. Consumer adoption
d. Product
5. It refers to unique set of brand associations that brand
strategist aspires to create or maintain
a. Branding
b. Packaging
c. Brand identity
d. Brand image
6. It involves a pricing strategy that charges customers
different prices for the same product or
service
a. Promotional pricing
b. Price discrimination
c. Non price competition
d. None
7. It refers to an arrangement where another company through its
own marketing channel sells the
products of one producers
a. End customer
b. Wholesaler
c. Retailing
d. Strategic channel alliance
8. It involves facility consisting of the means & equipments
necessary for the movement of
passengers of goods
a. Logistics
b. Warehousing
c. Transportation
d. None
9. The advertising which is used to inform consumers about a new
product or feature & to build
primary demands is known as
a. Advertising
b. Informative advertising
c. Persuasive advertising
d. Advertising strategy
10. An art that predicts the likelihood of economic activity on
the basis of certain assumptions
a. Compensation
b. Sales forecasting
c. Sales budgeting
d. Selling policy
Part Two:
1. Write a note on importance of consumer behavior for a
business firm?
2. Define the term ‘Price’.
3. Distinguish between Marketing Concept and Selling Concept?
4. What are the new trends in advertisement?
5. Briefly explain the following :
a) Socio –culture environment
b) Marketing environment interface.
Section B: Case lets (40 marks)
Case let 1
Questions
1. What are the significant factors that have led to the success
of Shoppers’ Stop?
2. Draw the typical profile(s) of Shoppers’ Stop customer
segments.
3. How are Indian customers visiting Shoppers’ Stop any
different from customers of developed
western countries?
4. How should Shoppers’ Stop develop its demand forecasts?
Case let 2
Questions
1. Considering the concept of product life cycle, where would
you put video games in their life
cycle?
2. Should video game companies continue to alter their products
to include other functions, such as
e-mail?
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
1. What is meant by sales promotion? Describe briefly the
various methods of sales promotional
tools used by business organizations to boost the sales. Explain
any four methods of sales
promotion?
2. Write notes on the fowling :
a) Explain right to safety.
b) What is right to consumer protection?
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Organizational
Behavior
Part one:
Multiple choices:
1. It is the degree to which a person identifies with a
particular organization and its goals, & wishes
to maintain membership in the organization
a. Job involvement
b. Terminal value
c. Attitude
d. Value
2. _________ means moving information from the hidden area to
the open area
a. blind area
b. unknown area
c. public area
d. self disclosure
3. An approach in which the goals of one party are in direct
conflict with the goals of the other party
a. Negotiation
b. Distributive bargaining
c. Stress
d. None
4. The measure of a person’s ability to operate within business
organizations through social
communication & interactions
a. Transactional analysis
b. Interpersonal skill
c. Life position
d. Johari window
5. Where the source of power is in person’s control over
rewarding outcomes, that power is called
a. Coercive power
b. Referent power
c. Legitimate power
d. Reward power
6. It means melting resistance to change; the people who will be
affected by the change come to
accept the need for it
a. Organization
b. Unfreezing
c. Changing
d. Refreezing
7. This training is also known as laboratory training, encounter
groups & T-groups
a. Sensitivity
b. Survey
c. Process
d. Team building
8. They are the things that come together to define a culture
& reveal that the culture is about to
those who pay attention to them
a. Culture
b. Espoused value
c. Artifacts
d. Organizational culture
9. This stage encompasses all the learning that occurs before a
new member joins the organizations
a. Socialization
b. The Pre-arrival stage
c. Encounter stage
d. Metamorphosis stage
10. It refers to the behavior pattern adopted by a leader to
influence the behavior of his subordinate
for attaining the organizational goal
a. Leadership
b. Traits of leadership
c. Leadership grid
d. Leadership style
Part Two:
1. Define Informal groups.
2. What do you understand by the term ‘Emotion’?
3. Write a note on ‘Reinforcement theory’.
4. Explain the terms ‘Attitudes and Values’.
Section B: Case lets (40 marks)
Case let 1
Questions
1. How would you examine if there is any merit in the remarks of
various functional managers?
2. What, in your opinion, could be the reasons for different
Managerial thinking in this case?
3. How would you design a system of getting correct information
about job status to identify delays quickly?
4. What would you suggest to promote co-ordinate interaction of
various people to meet the
scheduled dates?
Case let 2
Questions
1. Whom do you think Rajender will eat with? Why?
2. If you were one of the other foremen, what could you do to
make Rajinder’s transition easier?
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
1. A large unit manufacturing electrical goods which has been
known for its liberal personnel
policies and fringe benefits is facing the problem of low
productivity and high absenteeism. How
should the management improve the organizational climate?
2. The leader is expected to play many roles & therefore he
must be qualified to guide others to
organizational achievement. On the basis of this explain the
leadership skills & leadership traits.
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Principles
and Practice of Management
Multiple Choices:
1. A plan is a trap laid to capture the ________.
a. Future
b. Past
c. Policy
d. Procedure
2. It is the function of employing suitable person for the
enterprise
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Controlling
3. ___________ means “ group of activities & employees into departments”
a. Orientation
b. Standardization
c. Process
d. Departmentation
4. This theory states that authority is the power that is
accepted by others
a. Acceptance theory
b. Competence theory
c. Formal authority theory
d. Informal authority theory
5. It means dispersal of decision-making power to the lower
levels of the organization
a. Decentralization
b. Centralization
c. Dispersion
d. Delegation
6. This chart is the basic document of the organizational
structure
a. Functional chart
b. Posts chart
c. Master chart
d. Departmental chart
7. Communication which flow from the superiors to subordinates
with the help of scalar chain is known as
a. Informal communication
b. Downward communication
c. Upward communication
d. Oral communication
8. Needs for belongingness, friendship, love, affection,
attention & social acceptance are
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Ego needs
d. Social needs
9. A management function which ensures “jobs to be filled with
the right people, with the
right knowledge, skill & attitude”
a. Staffing defined
b. Job analysis
c. Manpower planning
d. Recruitment
10. It is a process that enables a person to sort out issues and
reach to a decisions affecting
their life
a. Selection
b. Raining
c. Reward
d. Counseling
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between ‘Administration’ and ‘Management’.
2. What were the common drawbacks in classical and Neo classical
theories of management?
3. Write a short note on “Line Organization.”
4. Write a short note on ‘Acceptance theory’.
Section B: Case lets (40 marks)
Case let 1
Questions
1. Critically analyze Mr. Vincent’s reasoning.
2. If you were the professor and you knew what was going through
Vincent’s mind, what would you
say to Vincent?
Case let 2
Questions
1. Diagnose the problem and enumerate the reasons for the
failure of D’Cuhna?
2. What could D’Cuhna have done to avoid the situation in which
he found himself?
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
1. What is Training? Explain the different methods of training?
2. Explain Decision-Making process of an organization?
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Project
Management
Multiple Choices: Total Marks: 100
1. A ________________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to
create a unique product, service, or
result.
a) Program
b) Process
c) Project
d) Portfolio
2. Which of the following is not a potential advantage of using
good project management?
a) Shorter development times
b) Higher worker morale
c) Lower cost of capital
d) Higher profit margins
3. Which of the following is not an attribute of a project?
a) Projects are unique
b) Projects are developed using progressive elaboration
c) Projects have a primary customer or sponsor
d) Projects involve little uncertainty
4. Which of the following is not part of the triple constraint
of project management?
a) Meeting scope goals
b) Meeting time goals
c) Meeting communications goals
d) Meeting cost goals
5. The first stage of any project is
a) Proposal
b) Conceptualization
c) Implementation
d) Management
6. __________________ is the application of knowledge, skills,
tools and techniques to project
activities to meet project requirements.
a) Project management
b) Program management
c) Project portfolio management
d) Requirements management
7. Project portfolio management addresses ____________________
goals of an organization, while
project management addresses _________________ goals.
a) Strategic, tactical
b) Tactical, strategic
c) Internal, external
d) External, internal
8. Several application development projects done for the same
functional group might best be
managed as part of a
a) Portfolio
b) Program
c) Investment
d) Collaborative
9. Which of the following is not one of the top ten skills or
competencies of an effective project
manager?
a) People skills
b) Leadership
c) Integrity
d) Technical skills
10. What is the certification program called that the Project
Management Institute provides?
a) Microsoft Certified Project Manager (MCPM)
b) Project Manager Professional (PMP)
c) Project Management Expert (PME)
d) Project Management Mentor (PMM)
11. A _________________ is a series of actions directed towards
a particular result.
a) Goal
b) Process
c) Plan
d) Project
12. ____________________ Processes include coordinating people
and other resource to carry out
the project plans and produce the products, service, or results
of the project or phase.
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring & controlling
13. Which process group normally requires the most resources and
time?
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and controlling
14. A work breakdown structure, project schedule, and cost
estimates are outputs of the process.
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and controlling
15. Which process group includes activities from each of the
nine knowledge areas?
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and controlling
16. Project management as a profession is almost unique in
having institutions concerned with its
development who promote what they term their
a) Body of language
b) Body of knowledge
c) Strategy
d) Work
17. Initiating involves developing a project charter and
preliminary project scope statement, which
are part of the project _____________________ management
knowledge.
a) Integration
b) Scope
c) Communications
d) Risk
18. A ________________ describes how things should be done, and
different organizations often
have different ways of doing things.
a) Regulation
b) Process
c) Standard
d) Methodology
19. ___________________ involves measuring progress toward
project objectives and talking
corrective actions.
a) Initiating
b) Planning
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and controlling
20. What type of report do project teams create to reflect on
what went right with the project?
a) Lessons – learned report
b) Status report
c) Final project report
d) Business case
21. Project manager is responsible for
a) Overseeing change
b) Cross functional activities
c) Ever changing set of tasks
d) All above
22. Many people use ________________ to have a standard format
for preparing various project
management documents.
a) Methodologies
b) Templates
c) Project management software
d) Standards
23. What is the last step in the four – stage planning process
for selecting information technology
projects?
a) Information technology strategy planning
b) Business area analysis
c) Project planning
d) Resource allocation
24. A new government law requires an organization to report data
in anew way. Under which
category would a new information system project to provide this
data fall?
a) Problem
b) Opportunity
c) Directive
d) Regulation
25. A __________________ is a document that formally recognizes
the existence of a project and
provides direction on the project’s objectives and management.
a) Project charter
b) Preliminary scope statement
c) Business case
d) Project management plan
26. ICOM model, which is one of the major roles of project
manager, stand for
a) Integrated Constraint of Mechanism
b) Inputs, Outputs, Constraints & Mechanism
c) Inputs, Outputs, Constraints & Money
d) None
27. A _______________ often includes sensitive information, so
it should not be part of the overall
project plan for anyone to see.
a) Business case
b) Project charter
c) Personnel chart
d) Stakeholder analysis
28. Which of the following is not a suggestion for performing
integrated change control?
a) Use good configuration management
b) Minimize change
c) Establish a formal change control system
d) View project management as a process of constant
communication and negotiation
29. _______________ refer(s) to all the work involved in
creating the products of the projects and
processes used to create them.
a) Deliverables
b) Milestones
c) Scope
d) Product development
30. Assume you have a project with major categories called
planning, analysis, design, and testing.
What level of the WBS would these items fall under?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
31. Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in
avoiding scope problems on
information technology projects?
a) Keep the scope realistic
b) Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible
c) Follow good project management processes
d) Don’t involve too many users in scope management
32. Having ascertains the portfolio of projects obtained
objectives for each of them, we have to move
to the next stage of the strategy process to balance the
objectives
a) Policy deployment
b) Strategy matrix
c) Project performance measurement
d) None
33. What major restaurant chain terminated a large project after
spending $170 million on it,
primarily because they realized the project scope was too much
to handle?
a) Burger King
b) Pizza Hut
c) McDonalds
d) Taco Bell
34. Scope ____________________ is often achieved by a customer
inspection and then sign – off on
key deliverables.
a) Verification
b) Validation
c) Completion
d) Close – out
35. Project management software helps you develop a
_________________, which serves as a basis
for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating
costs.
a) Project plan
b) Schedule
c) WBS
d) Deliverable
36. WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) is also known as
a) Chunking
b) Unbundling
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
37. What is the first process in planning a project schedule?
a) Milestone definition
b) Activity definition
c) Activity resource estimation
d) Activity sequencing
38. Predecessors, successes, logical relationships, leads and
lags, resource requirements, constraints,
imposed dates, and assumptions are all examples of
___________________.
a) Items in an activity list
b) Items on a Gantt chart
c) Milestone attributes
d) Activity attributes
39. As the project manager for a software development project,
you are helping to develop its
schedule. You decide that writing code for a system cannot start
until sign off on the analysis
work. What type of dependency is this?
a) Technical
b) Mandatory
c) Discretionary
d) External
40. You cannot start editing a technical report until someone
else completes the first draft. What type
of dependency does this represent?
a) Finish – to – start
b) Start – to – start
c) Finish – to – finish
d) Start – to – finish
41. …………………. Involves going through the cycle several times to
test the effects of the changes
make on the outcomes.
a) Planning
b) Strategy
c) Iterative
d) None
42.
Above figure shows two activities A & B; B cannot start
until A finished and the times for A &
B are 5 and 7 days respectively. This logic is known as
a) Dependency
b) Precedence
c) Freedom
d) None
43.
In the above figure calculate the EET (earliest event time) at
20.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 5
d) 25
10
0
20
0
A
5Days
1 2
3
A B
5Days 7Days
44. What symbol on a Gantt chart represents a slipped milestone?
a) A black arrow
b) A white arrow
c) A black diamond
d) A white diamond
45. What type of diagram shows planned and actual project
schedule information?
a) A network
b) A Gantt chart
c) A Tracking
d) A milestone chart
46. ____________________ is a network diagramming technique used
to predict total project
duration.
a) PERT
b) A Gantt chart
c) Critical path method
d) Crashing
47. Which of the following statement is false?
a) “Growing grass” was on the critical path for a large theme
park project.
b) The critical path is the series of activities that determine
the earliest time by which a
project can be completed.
c) A forward pass through a project network diagram determines
the early start and
early finish dates for each activity.
d) Fast tracking is a technique for marking cost and schedule
trade-offs to obtain the
obtain the greatest amount of schedule comparison for the least
incremental cost.
48. _____________________ is a method of scheduling that
considers limited resources when
creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the
project completion date.
a) Parkinson’s Law
b) Murphy’s Law
c) Critical path analysis
d) Critical chain scheduling
49. _______________ is a resource scarified or foregone to
achieve a specific objective or something
given up in exchange.
a) Money
b) Liability
c) Trade
d) Cost
50. What is main goal of project cost management?
a) To complete a project for as little cost as possible
b) To complete a project within an approved budget
c) To provide truthful and accurate cost information on projects
d) To ensure that an organization’s money is used widely
51. A fundamental of ‘Theory of Constraints’ (TOC) is to manage
systems by focusing on the
constraints, termed as
a) Watermark
b) Bottleneck
c) Tick-sheet
d) None
52. “An activity will expand to fill the time available”; it is
a) Newton’s Law
b) Parkinson’s Law
c) Einstein’s Law
d) None
53. Which of the following is not a key output of project cost
management?
a) A cost estimate
b) A cost management plan
c) Updates to the cost management plan
d) A cost baseline
54. If a company loses $5 for every $100 in revenue for a
certain product, what is profit margin for
that product?
a) -5 percent
b) 5 percent
c) -$5
d) $5
55. __________________ reserves allow for future situations that
are unpredictable.
a) Contingency
b) Financial
c) Management
d) Baseline
56. You are preparing a cost estimate for a building based on
its location, purpose, number of square
feet, and other characteristics. What cost estimating technique
are you using?
a) Parametric
b) Analogous
c) Bottom – up
d) Top – down
57. ______________ involves allocating the project cost estimate
to individual work items over time.
a) Reserve analysis
b) Life cycle costing
c) Project cost budgeting
d) Earned value analysis
58. _________________ is a project performance measurement
technique that integrates scope time,
and cost data.
a) Reserve analysis
b) Life cycle costing
c) Project cost budgeting
d) Earned value analysis
59. If the actual cost for a WBS item is $1500 and its earned
value was $2000, what is its cost
variance, and is it under or over budget?
a) The cost variance is -$500, which is over budget
b) The cost variance is -$500, which is under budget
c) The cost variance is $500, which is over budget
d) The cost variance is $500, which is under budget
60. If a project is halfway completed and its schedule
performance index is 110% and its cost
performance index is 95%, how is it progressing?
a) It is ahead of schedule and under budget
b) It is ahead of schedule and over budget
c) It is behind schedule and under budget
d) It is behind schedule and over budget
61. To determine the cost of particular element in advance of
the project, which technique can be employed?
a) Parametric estimating
b) As…………but…………s
c) Forecasts
d) All above
62. _______________ is the degree to which a set of inherent
characteristics fulfills requirements.
a) Quality
b) Conformance to requirements
c) Fitness for use
d) Reliability
63. What is the purpose of project quality management?
a) To produce the highest quality products and services possible
b) To ensure that appropriate quality standards are met
c) To ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which
it was undertaken
d) All of the above
64. _______________ generates ideas for quality improvements by
comparing specific project
practices or product characteristics to those of other projects
or products within or outside the
performing organization.
a) Quality audits
b) Design of experiments
c) Six Sigma
d) Benchmarking
65. What tool could you use to determine whether a process is in
control or out of control?
a) A cause – and – effect diagram
b) A control chart
c) A run chart
d) A scatter chart
66. Complication to the critical path represents the formation
of compound series of activities often
involving different paths which has been termed
a) The critical chain
b) The critical path
c) TOC
d) Resource path
67. Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no
more than ________________ defects,
errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
a) 6
b) 9
c) 3.4
d) 1
68. The seven run rule states that if seven data points in a row
on a control chart are all below the
mean, above the means, or all increasing or decreasing, then the
process needs to be examined for
_________________ problems.
a) Random
b) Non – random
c) Six Sigma
d) Quality
69. What is the preferred order for performing testing on
information technology projects?
a) Unit testing, integration testing, system testing, user
acceptance testing
b) Unit testing, system testing, integration testing, user
acceptance testing
c) Unit testing, system testing, user acceptance testing,
integration testing
d) Unit testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing,
system testing
70. ___________________ is known for his work on quality control
in Japan and developed the 14
points for Management in his text Out of the Crisis.
a) Juran
b) Deming
c) Crosby
d) Ishikawa
71. The theory of constraints (TOC) is successfully applied in
a) Planning
b) Checking
c) Manufacturing
d) Controlling
72. PMI’s OPM3 is an example of a ____________________ model or
framework for helping
organization improve their processes and systems.
a) Benchmarking
b) Six Sigma
c) Maturity
d) Quality
73. Which of the following is not part of project human resource
management?
a) Resource estimating
b) Acquiring the project team
c) Developing the project team
d) Managing the project team
74. _________________ causes people to participate in an
activity for their own enjoyment.
a) Intrinsic motivation
b) Extrinsic motivation
c) Self motivation
d) Social motivation
75. At the bottom of Maslow’s pyramid or hierarchy of needs are
_____________ needs.
a) Self – actualization
b) Esteem
c) Safety
d) Physiological
76. ________________ power is based on a person’s individual
charisma.
a) Affiliation
b) Referent
c) Personality
d) Legitimate
77. What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by
delaying tasks?
a) Resource loading
b) Resource leveling
c) Critical path analysis
d) Over allocation
78. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for
managing project team?
a) Observation and conversation
b) Project performance appraisals
c) Issue logs
d) Social Styles Profile
79. What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the
success of any project?
a) Lack of proper funding
b) A failure to communicate
c) Poor listening skills
d) Inadequate staffing
80. Which communication skill is most important for information
technology professionals for career
advancement?
a) Writing
b) Listening
c) Speaking
d) Using communication technologies
81. Which of the following is not a process in project
communication management?
a) Information planning
b) Information distribution
c) Performance reporting
d) Managing stakeholders
82. A building may not be constructed unless the planning
permission for it has been obtained, this is
the
a) Legal constraint
b) Quality constraint
c) Cost constraint
d) Logic constraint
83. A ________________ report describes where the project stands
at a specific point in time.
a) Status
b) Performance
c) Forecast
d) Earned value
84. __________________ is an uncertainly that can have a
negative or positive effect on meeting
project objectives.
a) Risk utility
b) Risk tolerance
c) Risk management
d) Risk
85. A person who is a risk - ______________ receives greater
satisfaction when more payoffs is at
stake and is willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
a) Averse
b) Seeking
c) Neutral
d) Aware
86. Which risk management process involves prioritizing based on
their probability and impact of
occurrence?
a) Risk management planning
b) Risk identification
c) Qualitative risk analysis
d) Quantitative risk analysis
87. The 7-S framework of project management issues was promoted
by
a) McJonald and Co.
b) McKinsly and Co.
c) J & K Co.
d) None
88. Your project involves using a new release of a software
application, but if that release is not
available, your team has ______________ plans to use the current
release.
a) Contingency
b) Fallback
c) Reserve
d) Mitigation
89. A risk _________________ is a document that contains results
of various risk management
processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.
a) Management plan
b) Register
c) Breakdown structure
d) Probability / impact matrix
90. Your project team has decided not to use an upcoming release
of software because it might cause
your schedule to slip. Which negative risk response strategy are
you using?
a) Avoidance
b) Acceptance
c) Transference
d) Mitigation
91. For non critical activities, network diagrams build in
…………………………. at the start of
activities.
a) Temporary
b) Buffer
c) Slack
d) Anywhere
92. If a project being undertaken by a particular project team,
then these are referred as
a) Resource capability
b) Resource capacity
c) Resource calendar
d) Resource pool
93. The term ‘hedgehog syndrome’ means
a) Management problem
b) Solving problem
c) Repetition of problem
d) Find out a problem
94. What is the first procurement process?
a) Planning contracting
b) Planning purchasing and acquisitions
c) Requesting seller responses
d) Procurement management planning
95. The _____________ is the point at which the contractor
assumes total responsibility for each
additional dollar of contract cost.
a) A breakeven point
b) Share ratio point
c) Point of reconciliation
d) Point of total assumption
96. We’re standing on this hill here. We want to be on that hill
over there, this is
a) View
b) Vision
c) Mission
d) Aim
97. A ______________________ is a document prepared by a seller
when there are different
approaches for meeting buyer needs.
a) RFP
b) RFQ
c) Proposal
d) Quote
98. Buyers often prepare a ______________________ list when
selecting a seller to make this
process more manageable.
a) Preferred
b) Short
c) Qualified suppliers
d) BAFO
99. A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of a(n)
______________________.
a) RFP
b) NPV analysis
c) Earned value analysis
d) Weighted scoring model
100. __________________ is a term used to describe various
procurement functions that are
now done electronically.
a) E – procurement
b) eBay
c) E – commerce
d) EMV
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