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SIX SIGMA GREEN
BELT
1. The Following is a sample data set. 10 8 8 6 5 What is the
variance of this data set?
a. 3.0
b. 3.8
c. 7.3
d. 7.4
2. An auditor should use a histogram in a quality audit to do
which of the following?
a. Provide objective evidence that the audited uses statistical
process control (SPC)
b. Expose patterns that are normally difficult to detect
c. Interpret data for a trend chart
d. create a stratified tally diagram
3. Comparing how a process is actually performed against the
documented work instruction for that
process is an example of which of the following techniques?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Statistical
d. Random sampling
4. Attribute sampling should be used when
a. The data are measurements in metric units.
b. Ayes-or-no decision is to be made.
c. The population has variability.
d. A multi-stage sampling plan is needed.
5. Scatter diagrams are best described as
a. Histograms.
b. Correlation analysis.
c. Pareto analysis.
d. Ishikawa diagrams.
6. If data are plotted over time, the resulting chart will be a
a. Run chart
b. Histogram
c. Pareto chart
d. Poisson distribution
7. To determine who are or might be customers for a specific
process, it would be most useful to create a
a. Pareto chart
b. Flow diagram
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Scatter diagram
8. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line
to indicate when components or raw materials
need to be replenished. The practice is an example of
a. Kanban
b. Poka-yake
c. Checkpoints
d. Hoshin
9. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycle time
reduction and concurrent operations?
a. A timeline
b. A Pareto diagram
c. An X and R chart
d. A PERT chart
10. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of
the following? Attribute variable
a. Counted values measured values
b. Counted values visual features
c. Measured values counted values
d. Visual features counted values
11. All of the following are common ways for people to react to
conflict EXCEPT
a. Competing
b. Collaborating
c. Avoiding
d. Sabotaging
12. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction
by talking samples based on the
categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and
demographic. This technique is known as
a. Random sampling
b. Data collection
c. Stratification
d. Customer classification
13. Which of the following actions is Not used to reduce process
cycle time?
a. Analyzing current processes
b. Reducing queue times
c. Setting priorities
d. Implementing activity-based costing
14. A company’s accounts payable department is trying to reduce
the time between receipt and payment
of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the
following tools would be the for them to
use next?
a. Fishbone diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Box and whisker plat
d. Histogram
15. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of
customer in relation to the human
resource department?
a. Intermediate
b. Hidden
c. External
d. Internal
16. The primary purpose of a project charter is to
a. Subdivide the project into smaller, more manageable
components
b. Provide management with a tool for selecting a project that
addresses business needs
c. Provide management with a tool to ensure that project
deadlines are met
d. Provide the project manager with authority to apply
organizational resources to project activities
17. Sample selection of parts for inspection must be selected at
random to ensure
a. A minimum sample size.
b. The probability of not rejecting the lot
c. The probability of accepting the lot
d. Finding typical characteristics of the lot.
18. Which of the following are bases for establishing
calibration intervals?
I. Stability
II.Purpose
III.Degree of usage
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III
19. Specification limits are derived from which of the
following?
a. Process capability studies
b. Process control charts
c. Customer requirements
d. Historical data
20. The primary purpose of a control chart is to
a. Set Specifications and tolerances
b. compare operations.
c. Determine the stability of a process.
d. Accept or reject a lot of material
21. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability
can be assessed at which of the following
times?
a. Before the chart is first started
b. After the first ten points are plotted
c. When the plotted points hug the centerline
d. After the process is shown to be in control
22. Precision is best described as
a. A comparison to a known standard
b. The achievement of expected outgoing quality
c. The repeated consistency of results
d. The difference between an average measurement and the actual
value
23. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain
Consistent results repeatedly when measuring
the same set of parts and using the same measuring equipment is
the definition of
a. Repeatability
b. Precision
c. Reproducibility
d. Accuracy
24. Which of the following conditions must be met for a process
to be in a state of statistical control?
a. Most of the product out by the process is in specification.
b. All subgroup averages and rang are within control limits.
c. All variation has been completely removed
d. Previously optimal process settings are used.
25. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to
the sum of deviations from the mean
squared divided by the sample size?
a. Range
b. Standard deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
26. An X and R chart is used to
a. Indicate process variation
b. Specify design Limits
c. Interpret costs
d. Identify customer expectations
27. Which of the following is the most useful graphical tool for
promoting an understanding of process
capability?
a. A flowchart
b. a histogram
c. An affinity diagram
d. An Ishikawa diagram
28. The type of chart that presents the value of items in
descending order is a
a. Histogram
b. Pareto chart
c. U chart
d. Cusum chart
29. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?
a. Temperature in degrees
b. Attendance at meetings
c. Weight in pounds
d. Length in metric units
5
30. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which
of the following types of control chart?
a. P chart
b. U chart
c. Np chart
d. C chart
31. A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which
of the following?
a. Determining the flow of a process
b. Detecting shifts in a process
c. Developing theories based on symptoms
d. Arranging theories by defect count
32. Which of the following statistics would best describe the
central tendency of a sample of data?
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard deviation
d. Range
33. Which of the following types of tools or techniques is
considered qualitative?
a. Histogram
b. Frequency distributions
c. Pareto chart
d. Process observations
34. Which of the following techniques is most useful in
narrowing issues and limiting discussion?
a. Brainstorming
b. Quality function deployment
c. Cause and effect analysis
d. Mutilating
35. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or
systematic is called
a. Bias
b. Sensitivity
c. Random
d. Shift
36. A customer satisfaction survey used the following rating
scale:
1= very satisfied
2= Satisfied
3= Neutral
4= dissatisfied
5= very dissatisfied
This is an example of which of the following measurement scales?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Interval
37. Which of the following techniques is used in identifying
underlying problems?
a. Cause and effect analysis
b. Prioritization matrix
c. Force field analysis
d. Pareto analysis
38. For a normal distribution, two standard deviation on each
side of the mean would include what
percentage of the total population
a. 47%
b. 68%
c. 95%
d. 99%
39. In measurement system analysis, which of the following pairs
of data measures is used to determine
total variance?
a. Process variance and reproducibility
b. Noise system and repeatability
c. Measurement variance and process variance
d. System variance and bias
40. Process data being used in the initial set-up of a process
are assumed have a normal distribution. If the
nominal (target) is at the center of the distribution, and the
specification limits are set at = 3 from the
center the Cpk is equal to
a. -0.25
b. 1.00
c. 1.33
d. 1.67
41. A green belt is going to monitor the number of defects on
different size samples. Which of the
following control chart would be most appropriate?
a. u
b. np
c. c
d. p
42. Correction, over-production, inventory, and motion are all
examples of
a. waste
b. 5S target areas
c. Noise
d. Value-added activities
43. The primary factor in the successful implementation of six
sigma is to have
a. The necessary resources
b. The support/leadership of top management
c. Explicit customer requirements
d. A comprehensive training program
44. Which of the following types of variation is LEAST likely to
occur in sequential repetitions of a
process over a short period of time?
a. Cyclical
b. Positional
c. Temporal
d. Seasonal
45. The primary reason that most companies implement six sigma
is to
a. Reduce defects
b. Improve Processes
c. Improve profit
d. Increase customer satisfaction
46. The term used to describe the risk of a type I error in a
test of hypotheses is
a. Power
b. Confidence level
c. Level of significance
d. Beta risk
47. One characteristic of attributes data is that it is always
a. continuous
b. Discrete
c. Expensive to collect
d. Read from a scale of measurement
48. Which of the following tests may be used to determine
whether a sample comes from a population
with an exponential distribution?
a. T
b. F
c. Chi-square
d. ANOVA
49. Which of the following tools are appropriate for a quality
engineer to use in qualifying a process that
has variable data?
I. An and R control chat
II. A his to gram
III. A cc hart
IV. A p chart
a. I and II only
b. II and III only
c. III and IV only
d. I, II, and IV only
50. The correlation coefficient for the length and weight of
units made by a process is determined to be
0.27. if the process were adjusted to reduce the weight of each
unit by 0.5 ounce, the correlation
coefficient of the length and weight of the units made by the
new process would be equal to
a. 0.50
b. 0.27
c. 0.23
d. -0.23
51. A form, in either diagram or table format, that is prepared
in advance for recording data is known as a
a. Cause-and-effect diagram
b. Pareto chart
c. Flowchart
d. Check sheet
52. A major drawback of using histogram in process control is
that they
a. do not readily account for the factor of time
b. Are relatively difficult to construct and interpret
c. Require too many data points
d. Require too many intervals
53. Which of the following tools would be of the greatest use
for finding the most efficient path and
realistic schedule for the completion of a project?
a. Interrelationship diagram
b. Activity network diagram
c. Tree diagram
d. Affinity diagram
54. A control plan is designed to do which of the following?
a. Supplement information contained in operator instructions
b. Support the production scheduling system
c. Provide a documented system for controlling processes
d. Provide a method for tracking the design review process
55. To determine the average number of nonconforming parts over
time, which of the following attribute
control chart would be most appropriate?
a. A chat
b. Np chart
c. P chart
d. U chat
56. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for
generating continuous improvement ideas?
a. Tree diagram
b. Brainstorming
c. Prioritization matrix
d. Interrelationship diagraph
57. Which of the following tools is used extensively quality
function deployment (QFD)?
a. Affinity diagram
b. Matrix diagram
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Activity network diagram
58. Which of the following tools is most likely to be organizing
a list of ideas generated during a
brainstorming session?
a. Activity network diagram
b. Affinity diagram
c. Histogram
d. Process control chart
59. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for
collecting data to study the symptoms of
a problem?
a. A check sheet
b. A flow diagram
c. A force field analysis
d. An activity network diagram
60. Kaizen is defined as
a. Re-engineering
b. Lean manufacturing
c. Continuous improvement
d. Error –proofing
61. The LEAST informative of the four measurement scales is the
a. Ratio
b. Nominal
c. Ordinal
d. Interval
62. Which of the following can used to determine the goodness of
fit of a distribution to a data set?
a. T test
b. ANOVA
c. F rest
d. Chi square test
63. A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What are the expected mean
and variance of the number of heads?
Mean variance
a. 0.5 0.025
b. 5.0 2.500
c. 5.0 5.000
d. 10.0 5.000
64. A process capability analysis is NOT used to
a. Determine the ability of a process to meet specifications
b. Maintain a process in a state of statistical control
c. Establish new specifications
d. Prioritize competing processes
65. A type of line graph used to assess the stability of a
process is called a
a. Control chart
b. Pareto chart
c. Check sheet
d. cause and effect diagram
66. A process produces nonconformities according to a
distribution. If the mean of the nonconformities is
25, what is the standard deviation?
a. 2.5
b. 5.0
c. 12.5
d. 25.0
67. Five six-sided dice are rolled together 100 times. Two
histograms are constructed: one for the 500
individual results and one for the 100 averages of five results.
In this situation, the individual results
follow a uniform distribution, while the averages follow which
of the following distributions?
a. Normal
b. Student’s t
c. Binomial
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 10
d. Uniform
68. A calibrated micrometer was used to take 10 replicated
measures of a reference standard. If X
m=0.073, and the true value of the reference standard is 0.075,
what is the bias of the micrometer?
a. 0.001
b. 0.002
c. 0.073
d. 0.075
69. The power of a test for the difference between means is
measured by
a. A
b. 1-a
c. B
d. 1-b
70. A process is stable and its output is normally distributed.
The process has a specification of
16.73=0.01. What is the maximum process standard deviation if
the Cp must be=1.5?
a. 0.0011
b.0.0022
c. 0.0041
d. 0.0133
71. Which of the following is the most effective technique for
prioritizing critical factors foe problemsolving?
a. Venn diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Pareto diagram
d. Cause and effect diagram
72. The main advantage of a matrix diagram is that it
a. Displays all the possible causes related to a problem
b. Displays the strength of relationship between each paired
combination of variables
c. Identifies, analyzes, and classifies the cause and effect
relationship that among all critical issues
d. Identifies a sequence of actions and materials entering a
process
73. Poka-yake is best defined as
a. Improving machine efficiency
b. Reducing field failures to virtually zero
c. Capturing the voice of the customer
d. Preventing controllable defects
74. Which of the following describes the 95% confidence interval
of a 20% absentee rate in a department
with 30 people?
a. 6% to 34%
b. 8% to 32%
c. 13% to 27%
d. 17% to 23%
75. Which of the following are needed to calculate the process
capability index,Cp?
a. The specification limits and the mean
b. The specification limits and s^ (Sigma Cap)
c. The process mean and s^(Sigma Cap)
d. The upper and lower specification limits
76. Repeatability and reproducibility are terms that
operationally define
a. Bias
b. Accuracy
c. Discrimination
d. Precision’
77. A method that classifies data without significantly reducing
accuracy or precision is known as
a. Bias adjustment
b. Statistical efficiency
c. Blocking
d. Coding
78. If a process has a variance of 4 units and a specification
of 96+4, what is the process performance
index (Pp)?
a. 0.33
b. 0.66
c. 1.00
d. 1.50
79. If a histogram has a distribution that is bimodal this
indicates that the
a. Process is in control
b. Distribution is abnormal
c. Data collected is accurate
d. data has two points
80. Which of the following best describes how an affinity
diagram is used?
a. Grasping organizational performance relative to contrasting
data
b. Prioritizing data from most signification to least
significant
c. Grouping ideas that are created during brainstorming
d. Identifying when a process is in control
81. Warranty claims are classified in which of the following
cost of quality groups?
a. Internal failure
b. External failure
c. Appraisal
d. Prevention
82. At what stage of the problem-solving process would a team
most likely use a cause-effect diagram?
a. Description of the process associated with the problem
b. Definition of the problem and its scope
c. Organization of possible problem causes
d. Collection of data to identify actual causes
83. Steel bars are cut to cylindrical shafts by means of a
lathe. The diameter and allowable tolerance of
the shaft is 2.00=.001 inch. A control chart is used to monitor
the quality level of the process. Which of
the following plots on the control chart might indicate a
problem of wear on the lathe?
a. The diameter of a single shaft above 2.001 inch
b. the diameter of a single shaft below 1.999 inch
c. An Apparent increasing trend in the shaft diameters
d. Erratic in-tolerance or out-of-tolerance diameter
measurements
84. A sample consists of one or more units of product drawn from
a lot or batch on the basis of
a. Defect of the product
b. Random selection
c. Size of the product
d. When the inspection process was completed
85. What is the percent yield for a normally distributed process
in which the item length specification is
5.750=0.004, X is 5.752, and the standard deviation is 0.002?
a. 15.73%
b. 19.15%
c. 47.72%
d. 83.99%
86. In preparation for construction of a cause and effect
diagram, it is important to
a. Plot separate chart for each source
b. Focus only on what makes thing go wrong
c. Record everything people suggest
d. Validate possible root cause
87. Which of the following tools should be used a team is
generating and prioritizing a list of options that
include highly controversial issues?
a. Brainstorming
b. Affinity diagram
c. Nominal group technique
d. 5 whys
88. If a distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what percentage of
data will be less than 30?
a. 59.18%
b. 40.82%
c. 9.18%
d. 1.33%
89. A company is receiving an unusually high number of returns
from various customers. The first step in
investigating the problem would be to
a. Check the inspection records
b. Establish the correlation of the returns to shipments
c. Brainstorm the potential causes
d. Classify the returns by type and degree of serious
90. Which of the following is the best definition of a flow
chart?
a. A diagram used to structure ideas into useful categories
b. An illustration used to analyze variation in a process
c. A picture used to separate steps of a process in sequential
order
d. An analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a
desired change
91. Which of the following activities would NOT contribute to
the effective functioning of a team?
a. Eliminating unnecessary activities
b. Development team performance measures
c. Defining process in detail
d. Monitoring each member’s performance
92. What is the standard deviation of the population below?
10, 4, 16, 12, 8
a. 4.00
b. 4.47
c. 16.00
d. 20.00
93. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for
collecting data to study the symptoms of
a problem?
a. Check sheet
b. Flow diagram
c. Force-field analysis
d. Activity network diagram
94. Which of the following measures is a sufficient statistic
for the parameter u?
a. Median
b. Mid-range
c. Mean
d. Mode
95. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most
commonly analyzed in
a. SPC charts
b. Multi-vari charts
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Run charts
96. Which of the following describes the deming method for
continuous improvement?
a. Cost of quality analysis
b. Process map
c. Tree Diagram
d. Plan-do-check-act cycle
97. in analysis of variance, Which of the following
distributions is the basis for determining whether the
variance estimates are all from the same population?
a. Chi square
b. Student’s
c. Normal
d. F
98. Which of the following statement best describes the set all
value of a random variable?
a. It is finite.
b. It is an interval
c. It can be discrete or continuous.
d. It can be tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.
99. Which of the following is the best description of
randomization?
a. A technique used to increase the precision of an experiment
b. A means of assuring representative sampling
c. The repetition of an observation or measurement
d. The relationship between two or more variables
100. When the order of items is not important, which of the
following is the method to use to determine
the number of sets and subsets of items?
a. Combination
b. Permutation
c. Factorization
d. Simulation
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Strategic Cost
Management
Multiple Choices:
1. A set of policies, procedures and approaches that helps a firm attain and retain success for long is termed as
a)Benchmarking
b) Life cycle costing
c) Target costing
d) Strategy
2. A cost management tool that bring in its focus the activities performed to produced a product
is called a)
Target costing
b) Life cycle costing
c) ABC
d) Benchmarking
3. Cost incurred to the past that are not relevant to present decisions are a)
Fixed cost
b) Sunk cost
c) Opportunity cost
d) Indirect costs
4. In a process costing system, when items are sold, the cost of the item are moved from a)
Work-in-progress to finished goods
b) Work-in-progress to Cost of goods sold
c) Cost of goods sold to finished good
d) Finished goods to cost of goods sold
5. Differential costs are sometimes referred to as a)
Incremental costs
b) Relevant costs
c) Avoidable costs
d) Both a& b
6. Customer service feature does not include a)
Warranty and repair service
b) Adherence to specifications
c) On-time delivery
d) Follow-up with customer after the sale.
7. Product cost are function ofa)
Product design
b) Specific customers
c) Customer characteristics
d) Market segments
8. The company‟s overall sales performance is influenced by factors such as a)
Sales volume
b) Sales Mix
c) Market size and share
d) All of the above
9. Customer life cycle cost includes a)
Purchases price
b) Start-up costs
c) Post-purchase cost
d) All of the above
10. Which stage of product life cycle is characterized by little competition and slowly increasing
sales?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
Part Two:
1. List the characteristics of Balance score card.
2. What are the methods of Alternative costing?
3. Differentiate between fixed cost and variable cost.
4. Discuss the dissimilarities between job order costing & process costing systems.
b) Life cycle costing
c) Target costing
d) Strategy
2. A cost management tool that bring in its focus the activities performed to produced a product
is called a)
Target costing
b) Life cycle costing
c) ABC
d) Benchmarking
3. Cost incurred to the past that are not relevant to present decisions are a)
Fixed cost
b) Sunk cost
c) Opportunity cost
d) Indirect costs
4. In a process costing system, when items are sold, the cost of the item are moved from a)
Work-in-progress to finished goods
b) Work-in-progress to Cost of goods sold
c) Cost of goods sold to finished good
d) Finished goods to cost of goods sold
5. Differential costs are sometimes referred to as a)
Incremental costs
b) Relevant costs
c) Avoidable costs
d) Both a& b
6. Customer service feature does not include a)
Warranty and repair service
b) Adherence to specifications
c) On-time delivery
d) Follow-up with customer after the sale.
7. Product cost are function ofa)
Product design
b) Specific customers
c) Customer characteristics
d) Market segments
8. The company‟s overall sales performance is influenced by factors such as a)
Sales volume
b) Sales Mix
c) Market size and share
d) All of the above
9. Customer life cycle cost includes a)
Purchases price
b) Start-up costs
c) Post-purchase cost
d) All of the above
10. Which stage of product life cycle is characterized by little competition and slowly increasing
sales?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
Part Two:
1. List the characteristics of Balance score card.
2. What are the methods of Alternative costing?
3. Differentiate between fixed cost and variable cost.
4. Discuss the dissimilarities between job order costing & process costing systems.
Caselet 1
1. Discuss why Vikram has an ethical responsibility to take some action against the MNC.
2. Which of the alternative courses would be the most appropriate in the given situation?
Caselet 2
Questions:
1. Prepare an organizational structure of brilliant University.
2. List the name of the departments having under the university.
Section C: Long Questions (30 Marks)
1. What is “Cost management”? Explain the primary objectives of cost management?
2. Define “Target costing”; discuss the principles of target costing.
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Project Management in Information Technology
Part One:
Multiple forms:
1. „Enterprise project management software (EPMS)‟ integrates information from a single project to
show the status.(T/F)
2. Gantt chart is used for the___________
3. In Adaptive approach for software development the focus is on___________
a. Time based cycles to meet the target dates
b. No time based cycles
c. Although time based but no target date
d. None
4. IEEE standard_____________ describes the contents of software project management plan.
a. 1058 – 1997
b. 1058 – 1998
c. 1058 – 1999
d. 1058 – 1996
5. Scope creep means________
a. The tendency for project scope to shrink
b. The tendency for project scope to grow bigger and bigger
c. The tendency for project scope to collapse completely
d. None
6. Slack or float is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying succeeding
activity.(T/F)
7. „PERT‟ stands for_________
8. „Murphy‟ law states_________
a. If something can go wrong, it can be corrected.
b. If something can go wrong , it will
c. If something can no go wrong , it will
d. None
9. Project that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follows a 5 phase improvement
process called DMAIC, here A stands for_______
a. Art
b. Analyze
c. Allies
d. None
10. Fishbone diagram is also called_______
a. Gantt diagram
b. Murphy diagram
c. Parkinson diagram
d. Ishikawa diagram
Part Two:
1. Write a note on „Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)‟.
2. Define the Earned value?
3. Explain the Kichoff meeting?
4. How would you explain the Cross-Referencing requirement Matrix?
Caselet 1
1. What according to you are the factors that can hamper the profit growth related with the project?
2. Mention some strategies to further improve the project‟s turnover.
Caselet 2
1. According to you what the skills needed for the project management of organization?
2. How could have been the six sigma project became a helpful tool in very sophisticated kind of
project management?
Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words).·
1. How would you explain the project manager? Explain the characteristics of the successful project
manager?
2. Define the IT project plan? Discuss the IT project plan
format in detail?
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Database Management Systems
Multiple choices:
1. A collection of related sets of data items along with necessary data/ information associated with it.
a. Data
b. Information
c. Process
d. Database
2. ___________connects computers which are very remotely placed.
a. Local Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
3. A column in a table is called__________
a. Field
b. Record
c. Tuple
d. Link
4. DDL stands for ___________
a. Data Definition Language
b. Data Decision Language
c. Database Definition Language
d. None
5. SQL stands for ___________
a. Structured Query Language
b. Statement Query Language
c. Strict Query language
d. None
Part Two:
1. List the different types of DBMS.
2. Differentiate between „DBMS‟ and „RDBMS‟.
3. What do you mean by „Data Dictionary‟?
4. Differentiate between discretionary access control and mandatory access control.
Section B: Caselets (40 marks)
Caselet 1
1. What are the roles of a database in present scenario?
Caselet 2
1. Discuss various anomalies in databases. How would you improve data management in
organizations?
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
1. What do you understand by relational data model? Explain relational constraints and relational
database schemas
2. What are the similarities and dissimilarities in the software development life cycle and database
development life cycle?
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Information
Technology & Management
Part One:
Multiple Choices:
1. It means data that have been processed in a form that is meaningful and useful to the user.
a. Data
b. Information
c. System
d. None of the above
2. BCR stands for____________
a. Bar code reader
b. Basic code reader
c. Business code reader
d. None of the above
3. Which of the following comes under output devices?
a. Printer
b. Speaker
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
4. A trackball is a stationary device related to the_______
a. Keyboard
b. Joystick
c. Mouse
d. All of the above
5. ___________is a volatile memory and everything disappears if power goes off or is turned off
abruptly in the middle of work.
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. CDROM
d. None of the above
6. IC stands for____________
a. Integrated Circuit
b. Information Circuit
c. Interrelated Circuit
d. None of the above
7. DSS stands for____________
a. Decision Support System
b. Direction Support System
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
8. How many characters uses the MICR system?
a. 15 characters
b. 18 characters
c. 24 characters
d. 14 characters
9. One Megabyte contains:
a. 1000 KB
b. 1000 Bytes
c. 1000 MB
d. None of the above
10. The smallest element of data is called_______
a. Byte
b. Bit
c. Giga byte
d. None of the above
Part
Two:
1. Write a note on „Cache Memory‟.
2. List the different types of information systems.
3. Write a short note on „Value Chain Analysis‟
4. Discuss peer- to - peer model in distributed computing system.
Questions:
1. Why has eBay become such a successful and diverse online marketplace? Visit the eBay website
to help you answer, and check out their many trading categories, specialty sites, international
sites, and other features.
2. Why do you think eBay has become the largest online/offline seller of used cars, and the largest
online seller of certain other products, like computers and photographic equipment?
Caselet 2
Questions:
1. Why have developments in IT helped to increase the value of the data resources of many companies?
2. How can companies use IT to meet the challenges of data resources security?
1. Explain distributed systems. What are the advantages and disadvantages of distributed systems?
2. What do you mean by database? List the different types of database model.
1. Write a note on „Cache Memory‟.
2. List the different types of information systems.
3. Write a short note on „Value Chain Analysis‟
4. Discuss peer- to - peer model in distributed computing system.
Questions:
1. Why has eBay become such a successful and diverse online marketplace? Visit the eBay website
to help you answer, and check out their many trading categories, specialty sites, international
sites, and other features.
2. Why do you think eBay has become the largest online/offline seller of used cars, and the largest
online seller of certain other products, like computers and photographic equipment?
Caselet 2
Questions:
1. Why have developments in IT helped to increase the value of the data resources of many companies?
2. How can companies use IT to meet the challenges of data resources security?
1. Explain distributed systems. What are the advantages and disadvantages of distributed systems?
2. What do you mean by database? List the different types of database model.
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MARKETING
MANAGEMENT
Multiple choices:
1. A collection of related sets of data items along with necessary data/ information associated with it.
a. Data
b. Information
c. Process
d. Database
2. ___________connects computers which are very remotely placed.
a. Local Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
3. A column in a table is called__________
a. Field
b. Record
c. Tuple
d. Link
4. DDL stands for ___________
a. Data Definition Language
b. Data Decision Language
c. Database Definition Language
d. None
5. SQL stands for ___________
a. Structured Query Language
b. Statement Query Language
c. Strict Query language
d. None
Part Two:
1. List the different types of DBMS.
2. Differentiate between „DBMS‟ and „RDBMS‟.
3. What do you mean by „Data Dictionary‟?
4. Differentiate between discretionary access control and mandatory access control.
1. What are the roles of a database in present scenario?
Caselet 2
1. Discuss various anomalies in databases. How would you improve data management in organizations?
1. What do you understand by relational data model? Explain relational constraints and relational
database schemas
2. What are the similarities and dissimilarities in the software development life cycle and database
development life cycle?
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Telecommunications Essentials
Multiple Choices:
1. This band transmits uplink around the 6GHz range & downlink around the 4GHz range.
a. C-Band
b. Ku-Band
c. Ka-Band
d. L-Band
2. On these trunks, traffic flows in both the incoming & outgoing directions.
a. DOD trunks
b. DID trunks
c. Two-way local exchange trunks
d. None
3. As networks become more digitized, fewer conversions take place, and voice can be carried at a
higher quality over fewer flower bits per second.
a. PCM
b. ADPCM
c. DCSs
d. DLCs
4. _____________ is a standard for storage & retrieval of moving pictures & audio on storage
media.
a. MPEG-1
b. MPEG-2
c. MPEG-4
d. MPEG-7
5. It is an open standard for digital video transmission over cable that was defined by ETSI &
ratified in 1994.
a. DVB-H
b. DVB-T
c. DVB-C
d. DVB-S & DVB-S2
6. It is the oldest of DSL technologies & a symmetrical service, measuring that it provides equal
bandwidth in the both directions.
a. HDSL
b. SDSL
c. G. SHDSL
d. ADSL
7. It is the newest spread spectrum technique, and its main purpose is to resolve the problems
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. OFDM
d. ADPCM
8. It is a new concept in multimedia mobile broadcasting service, converging broadcasting and
telecommunications.
a. DMB
b. OFDM
c. VF
d. None
9. It is a Niche broadband wireless technology that at first appears to complete for market share with
mobile WiMax & Mobile-Fi.
a. HiperAccess
b. HiperMan
c. iBursrt
d. ETSI BRAN
10. In-FUSIO‟s (www. Infusion.com) __________ is best known for its business model, which
supports a variety of revenue models, including pay-per-level and SMS high scores.
a. JavaME
b. BREW
c. EXEn
d. Mophun
Part Two:
1. State the protocols & implementations which are associated with Mesh Network.
2. Write a short note on HFC Architecture and draw the topology of an HFC network.
3. What is the IP multimedia system?
4. What is Symmetric Encryptions?
5. Briefly explain the major layers of IPT network taxonomy.
Caselet 1
Questions:
1. How does this case demonstrate the importance of data transmission rates in business? Does it
imply that people in Japan are willing to accept lower data rates than people in the U.S.?
2. Some people say that the Internet fosters globalization by providing world wide access to the
Web. Discuss arguments for and against this statement.
Caselet 2
Questions:
1. Why might portable computing and desktop computing call for different types of micro-processors?
2. Review the performance variables. In which areas did the Transmeta chip try to excel?
Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)
1. DNS is a distributed database system that operates on the basis of a hierarchy of names. Explain
the statement & also explain how DNS servers work.
2. Explain the workings of GSM, UWC, CdmaOne & PDC technologies of digital cellular.
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