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SAP Technical Consultant
Multiple choices:
1. Which one of the following is a key component of SAP Web application system?
a. J2EE
b. VB.Net
c. Java
d. SQL
2. SAP has optimized the data flow between the _______and the _______servers.
a. SPDD, SPAU
b. Presentation , application
c. QAS, PRD
d. None of the above
3. ___________ is the SAP transaction that is used to generate the ABAP loads.
a. SGEN
b. IMG
c. QAS
d. SPAU
4. __________ are areas of temporary storage that help to access more rapidly data and execute
ABAP programs faster.
a. RAM
b. Buffer
c. ROM
d. All of the above
5. Which Roadmap provides a methodology for the implementation of global customer solution?
a. Technical Roadmap
b. Solution Roadmap
c. Implementation Roadmap
d. Global Template Roadmap
6. The rectangular boxes that are found on nearly every initial and output screen in the SAP
system are referred as_______________
a. Storage Folder
b. Central Work Area.
c. Check Boxes
d. Data Fields
Examination Paper: SAP Consultancy
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
7. While entering user profile data, the third step is to____________
a. Go to the menu bar
b. Clicks the defaults tab
c. Maintain user profile popup screen
d. Click the save button
8. SAP R/3 is packages of integrated applications called _______ that record and track the
activities and costs of doing business.
a. Module
b. Tracker
c. Project
d. Controller
9. What allows you to adjust the size and shape of the applications window by clicking and
dragging it into a new position?
a. System Data Field
b. Frame Grabber
c. Message Field
d. None of the above
10. The wait time should fall under 10% of the total _______.
a. Load Time
b. Response Time
c. Database Time
d. Enqueue Time
True & False:
1. SAP’s standard smart-card authentication allows a “safer” authentication process.
2. Proof of obligation is not necessary for confirming and guaranteeing.
3. A digital signature is equivalent to the traditional hand written signature on paper documents.
4. The purpose of the project preparation is to provide initial planning and preparation for SAP
project.
5. CCMs stand for Common Center Management System.
6. HTTP is the default protocol for transferring files on the World Wide Web.
7. To send a short message to another SAP user on the same system, select system short
message from any screen.
8. ABAP processor is a free work process, making optimal use of system resources and
balancing the system load.
9. Debugger is a task similar to running a program.
10. Application Link & Enables (ALE) not allows integration between applications in distributed
Systems.
1. Explain the Process for starting & stopping SAP systems.
2. Distinguish between SPADD and SPAPU.
3. Define ‘Lightweight Directory Access Protocol’.
4. Explain the Repository Information System?
1. Which one of the following is a key component of SAP Web application system?
a. J2EE
b. VB.Net
c. Java
d. SQL
2. SAP has optimized the data flow between the _______and the _______servers.
a. SPDD, SPAU
b. Presentation , application
c. QAS, PRD
d. None of the above
3. ___________ is the SAP transaction that is used to generate the ABAP loads.
a. SGEN
b. IMG
c. QAS
d. SPAU
4. __________ are areas of temporary storage that help to access more rapidly data and execute
ABAP programs faster.
a. RAM
b. Buffer
c. ROM
d. All of the above
5. Which Roadmap provides a methodology for the implementation of global customer solution?
a. Technical Roadmap
b. Solution Roadmap
c. Implementation Roadmap
d. Global Template Roadmap
6. The rectangular boxes that are found on nearly every initial and output screen in the SAP
system are referred as_______________
a. Storage Folder
b. Central Work Area.
c. Check Boxes
d. Data Fields
Examination Paper: SAP Consultancy
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
7. While entering user profile data, the third step is to____________
a. Go to the menu bar
b. Clicks the defaults tab
c. Maintain user profile popup screen
d. Click the save button
8. SAP R/3 is packages of integrated applications called _______ that record and track the
activities and costs of doing business.
a. Module
b. Tracker
c. Project
d. Controller
9. What allows you to adjust the size and shape of the applications window by clicking and
dragging it into a new position?
a. System Data Field
b. Frame Grabber
c. Message Field
d. None of the above
10. The wait time should fall under 10% of the total _______.
a. Load Time
b. Response Time
c. Database Time
d. Enqueue Time
True & False:
1. SAP’s standard smart-card authentication allows a “safer” authentication process.
2. Proof of obligation is not necessary for confirming and guaranteeing.
3. A digital signature is equivalent to the traditional hand written signature on paper documents.
4. The purpose of the project preparation is to provide initial planning and preparation for SAP
project.
5. CCMs stand for Common Center Management System.
6. HTTP is the default protocol for transferring files on the World Wide Web.
7. To send a short message to another SAP user on the same system, select system short
message from any screen.
8. ABAP processor is a free work process, making optimal use of system resources and
balancing the system load.
9. Debugger is a task similar to running a program.
10. Application Link & Enables (ALE) not allows integration between applications in distributed
Systems.
1. Explain the Process for starting & stopping SAP systems.
2. Distinguish between SPADD and SPAPU.
3. Define ‘Lightweight Directory Access Protocol’.
4. Explain the Repository Information System?
1. Explain Installation and
Planning Concepts of SAP.
2. Describe the ABAP dictionary in SAP System.
3. What is SAP upgrade Project & explain its key success factors?
4. Explain the different types of buffering table.
1. Explain the steps for the creation process of a Web Dynpro Application.
2. Explain the User Master Record Fids and its available options. Briefly.
2. Describe the ABAP dictionary in SAP System.
3. What is SAP upgrade Project & explain its key success factors?
4. Explain the different types of buffering table.
1. Explain the steps for the creation process of a Web Dynpro Application.
2. Explain the User Master Record Fids and its available options. Briefly.
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SAP-R/3
Multiple choices:
1. Which feature or element not found on every screen of the SAP application window?
a. Title bar
b. Central work area
c. Standard toolbar
d. None of the above
2. SAP Easy Access Screen contains a set of folders called________________.
a. Favorites Menu
b. System Menu
c. Environment Menu
d. Standard Toolbar
3. What will be display when the system shortcut menu icon clicked?
a. Service order
b. Short menu of command
c. System menu
d. Small application bar
4. How much buttons contain in application toolbar for issuing commands that are related to
these screen elements?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
5. The ____________allows to adjust the size & shape of the application window by clicking &
dragging it into a new position.
a. Frame grabber
b. Panel
c. Frames
d. Selection box
6. What will be highlight when a selection box is clicked?
a. Selected box
b. Object codes
c. List icon
d. Frame
Examination Paper: SAP Consultancy
IIBM Institute of Business Management 5
7. The procedure begins at the ____________in the application toolbar of the table.
a. Delete button
b. Choose layout screen
c. Layout setting button
d. None of the above
8. ___________are created in SAP 4.7 to track the activities & cost of installing and maintaining
technical equipment.
a. Maintenance Processing
b. Logistics
c. Plant maintenance
d. All of the above
9. Which screen contains seven data fields in which the e-mail & its attached documents are
described?
a. Document content sub screen
b. Attribute sub screen
c. Create & send document screen
d. Recipient sub screen
10. The Links for all the transaction in the financial and controlling modules which are use to
manage budgets and costs are hold by________.
a. Accounting folder
b. User menu folder
c. Favorites folder
d. Logistics folder
1. Which feature or element not found on every screen of the SAP application window?
a. Title bar
b. Central work area
c. Standard toolbar
d. None of the above
2. SAP Easy Access Screen contains a set of folders called________________.
a. Favorites Menu
b. System Menu
c. Environment Menu
d. Standard Toolbar
3. What will be display when the system shortcut menu icon clicked?
a. Service order
b. Short menu of command
c. System menu
d. Small application bar
4. How much buttons contain in application toolbar for issuing commands that are related to
these screen elements?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
5. The ____________allows to adjust the size & shape of the application window by clicking &
dragging it into a new position.
a. Frame grabber
b. Panel
c. Frames
d. Selection box
6. What will be highlight when a selection box is clicked?
a. Selected box
b. Object codes
c. List icon
d. Frame
Examination Paper: SAP Consultancy
IIBM Institute of Business Management 5
7. The procedure begins at the ____________in the application toolbar of the table.
a. Delete button
b. Choose layout screen
c. Layout setting button
d. None of the above
8. ___________are created in SAP 4.7 to track the activities & cost of installing and maintaining
technical equipment.
a. Maintenance Processing
b. Logistics
c. Plant maintenance
d. All of the above
9. Which screen contains seven data fields in which the e-mail & its attached documents are
described?
a. Document content sub screen
b. Attribute sub screen
c. Create & send document screen
d. Recipient sub screen
10. The Links for all the transaction in the financial and controlling modules which are use to
manage budgets and costs are hold by________.
a. Accounting folder
b. User menu folder
c. Favorites folder
d. Logistics folder
True & False:
1. Root folder is known as SAP menu.
2. Click the customizing of local layout button to display its menu, then follow the menu path
(customizing of local layout < new visual design)
3. The title bar displays the name of the screen in the application window.
4. The command buttons execute internal tasks.
5. SAP R/3 is a package of integrated application.
6. The reporting transaction creates & change objects in their database records.
7. Business workplace screen helps to create and send new email.
8. The create document and send screen appears when click the mail recipient button.
9. In saving a display variant, second step of procedure is optional.
10. Line item fields are strings of fields in which you can enter several bits of coded &
short text data about an object.
1. What is SAP R/3?
2. Explain “Central Work Area”.
3. How many formats of Data entry field appears on initial screen?
4. Define Plant Maintenance.
1. How can you change the
names of folders & links in your favorites folders at any time?
2. How can you use keystrokes to execute commands on objects in your favorites folders?
3. How to customizing the SAP easy access screen?
4. What is a procedure to filtering a line item report? Explain with example.
2. How can you use keystrokes to execute commands on objects in your favorites folders?
3. How to customizing the SAP easy access screen?
4. What is a procedure to filtering a line item report? Explain with example.
1. With the help of proper
diagram explain the steps use to customizing with the new visual
design command.
2. Explain the elements which are found on every screen of the SAP application window.
design command.
2. Explain the elements which are found on every screen of the SAP application window.
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SOLUTIONS, PROJECT REPORTS AND THESIS
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Business Law
Multiple choices:
1. A condition cannot be treated as warranty in the following circumstances and waiver is implied:
a. Where the buyer waives a condition or elects to treat the breach of warranty.
b. Where a contract of sale is not severable and the buyer has accepted the goods or part thereof.
c. The breach of any condition to be fulfilled by the seller can only be treated as a breach of
warranty, unless provided for otherwise in the contract.
d. Obstructs or prevents the other party from fulfilling his part of promise.
e. All of the above.
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. An agreement with or by the minor is void and inoperative.
b. A contract entered by the guardian for the beneficiary of a minor is not valid.
c. A minor by misrepresenting his age can enter into a valid contract.
d. A minor can create contractual obligations as a partner.
e. A minor can ratify all invalid acts as valid on attaining majority at any time.
3. Which of the following will amount to material alteration of a cheque?
a. When the holder crosses an uncrossed cheque.
b. When the holder converts general crossing into special crossing by adding the name of the
banker on he face of the cheque.
c. When the holder converts special crossing into general crossing by erasing the name of the
banker in the cheque.
d. When the holder adds the word “Not negotiable.”
e. When a banker crosses an uncrossed cheque or converts a general or special crossing to
another banker or to himself.
4. The right of transfer may be denied in case of private companies as?
a. The company may not refuse to register the transfer or transmission by operation of law.
b. The company may not refuse to register the transfer by virtue of power conferred on it by the
articles or otherwise.
c. The articles of the company contain restrictions as to transferability of shares.
d. The power of refusal to register a transfer is exercised with malafide intention and against the
interest f the company.
e. None of the above.
Semester II Examination Papers
5. Which of the following is true?
a. A minor may be enrolled as a member if he acquires shares through transfer.
b. A company cannot become a member of another company.
c. A partnership firm can become a member of any other company.
d. Where an official liquidator is appointed in respect of certain shares, he can be registered as a
member.
e. None of the above.
1. A condition cannot be treated as warranty in the following circumstances and waiver is implied:
a. Where the buyer waives a condition or elects to treat the breach of warranty.
b. Where a contract of sale is not severable and the buyer has accepted the goods or part thereof.
c. The breach of any condition to be fulfilled by the seller can only be treated as a breach of
warranty, unless provided for otherwise in the contract.
d. Obstructs or prevents the other party from fulfilling his part of promise.
e. All of the above.
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. An agreement with or by the minor is void and inoperative.
b. A contract entered by the guardian for the beneficiary of a minor is not valid.
c. A minor by misrepresenting his age can enter into a valid contract.
d. A minor can create contractual obligations as a partner.
e. A minor can ratify all invalid acts as valid on attaining majority at any time.
3. Which of the following will amount to material alteration of a cheque?
a. When the holder crosses an uncrossed cheque.
b. When the holder converts general crossing into special crossing by adding the name of the
banker on he face of the cheque.
c. When the holder converts special crossing into general crossing by erasing the name of the
banker in the cheque.
d. When the holder adds the word “Not negotiable.”
e. When a banker crosses an uncrossed cheque or converts a general or special crossing to
another banker or to himself.
4. The right of transfer may be denied in case of private companies as?
a. The company may not refuse to register the transfer or transmission by operation of law.
b. The company may not refuse to register the transfer by virtue of power conferred on it by the
articles or otherwise.
c. The articles of the company contain restrictions as to transferability of shares.
d. The power of refusal to register a transfer is exercised with malafide intention and against the
interest f the company.
e. None of the above.
Semester II Examination Papers
5. Which of the following is true?
a. A minor may be enrolled as a member if he acquires shares through transfer.
b. A company cannot become a member of another company.
c. A partnership firm can become a member of any other company.
d. Where an official liquidator is appointed in respect of certain shares, he can be registered as a
member.
e. None of the above.
Part Two:
What is ‘Restitution’?
Who are ‘Lunatic persons’?
What is ‘coercion’?
What are ‘contingent contracts’?
What is ‘Doctrine of restitution’?
1) ‘A’ delivered gold to a
jeweler for making certain ornaments. Jeweler refused to deliver the
ornaments when ready. He claims that until ‘A’ pays him the charges for making the ornaments
and also the sum of Rs. 1,000, which was due to him from ‘A’ on certain earlier transactions, he
is entitled to retain ornaments. Advice ‘A’.
ornaments when ready. He claims that until ‘A’ pays him the charges for making the ornaments
and also the sum of Rs. 1,000, which was due to him from ‘A’ on certain earlier transactions, he
is entitled to retain ornaments. Advice ‘A’.
2) A sells a radio to ‘M’, a minor, who pays for it by cheque. ‘A’ indorses the cheque to ‘B’ who
takes it in good faith and for value. The cheque is dishonored on presentation. Can ‘B’ enforce
payment of the cheque against ‘A’ or ‘M’?
3) Mr.Nandkani is a shopkeeper. He agreed to sell to Mr. James some kind of oil described as
“foreign refined rape on warranted only equal to sample”. The samples contained an admixture
of hemp oil and the oil delivered was adultered in the same way .After purchasing, Mr.James
found that the oil was not rape oil. What is the right of Mr. James as a Purchaser?
4) Mr. Shamrao Garud, being entitled to an estate for the life of Me, Dada Kokil agrees to sell Dada
estate to Mr.R. N Upalekar. But Mr. Dada Kokil was dead at the time of agreement and Mr.
Garud as well as Mr. Upalekar was not having the knowledge of the fact .Is this agreement void
on the ground of mistake, misrepresentation or fraud?
Section 4(1) of the Sale of
Goods Act says that a contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby
the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property and Sub-section (3) deals with an agreement
to sell where the transfer of property in goods take place at future time.” Distinguish a sale from
an agreement to sell.
the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property and Sub-section (3) deals with an agreement
to sell where the transfer of property in goods take place at future time.” Distinguish a sale from
an agreement to sell.
“Section 14 of the Act says that the making, acceptance or endorsement of a promissory note, _
bill of exchange or cheque is completed by delivery, actual or constructive.” Define and explain
the term “Negotiation” as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
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Renewable Energy
Part One:
1. Which of the following works as the promotional and financial arm of the Ministry?
a. DNES
b. SSSNIRE
c. IREDA
d. MNES
2. _________________ is a research that focus on producing more energy than consumed by
combining highly efficient design in fuel – cell.
a. Zero Energy Building
b. Hydrogen Technology
c. Nano Technology
d. LED Development
3. MNES has been promoting RD & D to tap the energy namely:
a. Biomass
b. Solar Air Heating
c. SPV Power Plant
d. Hydrogen Energy
4. India is the fifth largest producer of ______________ in the world with power generation
capacity of 126MV:
a. Wind Power Energy
b. Small Hydro Power
c. Ocean Energy
d. Biomass Power
5. WEA stands for _________________________.
6. MNES stands for ________________________________________.
7. It is only possible when biogas from fodder grasses without going through the bullock route:
a. Fodder – Biogas – Engine
b. Fodder – Bullock
c. Wood – Producer Gas – Engine
d. Bullock – Biogas – Fodder
8. NABARD is providing the facility of automatic refinancing to banks as an:
a. Incentive for Solar Photovoltaic’s
b. Incentive for Biogas
c. Incentive for Solar Thermal
d. Incentive for Small Hydro Power
9. Give any two objectives of Cost Management System?
10. Uncertain technological track record is which of the following barrier in Solar Power
Development:
a. Market Related
b. Institutional
c. Economical & Technological
d. Ecological
1. Which of the following works as the promotional and financial arm of the Ministry?
a. DNES
b. SSSNIRE
c. IREDA
d. MNES
2. _________________ is a research that focus on producing more energy than consumed by
combining highly efficient design in fuel – cell.
a. Zero Energy Building
b. Hydrogen Technology
c. Nano Technology
d. LED Development
3. MNES has been promoting RD & D to tap the energy namely:
a. Biomass
b. Solar Air Heating
c. SPV Power Plant
d. Hydrogen Energy
4. India is the fifth largest producer of ______________ in the world with power generation
capacity of 126MV:
a. Wind Power Energy
b. Small Hydro Power
c. Ocean Energy
d. Biomass Power
5. WEA stands for _________________________.
6. MNES stands for ________________________________________.
7. It is only possible when biogas from fodder grasses without going through the bullock route:
a. Fodder – Biogas – Engine
b. Fodder – Bullock
c. Wood – Producer Gas – Engine
d. Bullock – Biogas – Fodder
8. NABARD is providing the facility of automatic refinancing to banks as an:
a. Incentive for Solar Photovoltaic’s
b. Incentive for Biogas
c. Incentive for Solar Thermal
d. Incentive for Small Hydro Power
9. Give any two objectives of Cost Management System?
10. Uncertain technological track record is which of the following barrier in Solar Power
Development:
a. Market Related
b. Institutional
c. Economical & Technological
d. Ecological
Part Two:
1 Write a short note on ‘Wind Turbine System’.
2. Describe some policies of Small Scale Industries.
3. Write a short note on ‘Small Hydro Power? State its investment opportunities.
4. What are the problems in Renewal Energy Sources?
1. How to Generate Solar
Energy using Naptha? Explain.
1. What is Renewable Energy
and state the Sustainable Development to it?
2. How could renewable energy help in providing opportunities to the youth?
3. Write a note on ‘Adoption of Renewable Energy’.
4. What are the issues in harnessing Renewable Energy?
1. Write the key features of Renewable Energy Technologies.
2. Give the Pros & Cons of Solar Power.
3. State the issues involved in mainstreaming of Renewable.
2. How could renewable energy help in providing opportunities to the youth?
3. Write a note on ‘Adoption of Renewable Energy’.
4. What are the issues in harnessing Renewable Energy?
1. Write the key features of Renewable Energy Technologies.
2. Give the Pros & Cons of Solar Power.
3. State the issues involved in mainstreaming of Renewable.
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Energy Management
Part One:
1. The audit that focused on evaluating the energy consumption pattern is a:
a. Preliminary Audit
b. Sound Energy Audit
c. Detailed Audit
d. Efficiency Audit
2. Energy Crops are also known as _________________.
3. When plant matter is heated but not burnt to break into solid, liquid and gas is which type of
convention:
a. Chemical Convention
b. Thermo chemical Convention
c. Biochemical Convention
d. Residual Convention
4. An example of a simple passive space heating technology is the ________________.
5. To make solar design effective which of the following is not followed?
a. A building should have large areas of glazing facing the sun.
b. Certain features should be adopted for equal distribution of heat throughout the building.
c. A building should be sufficient to allow heat storage.
d. A building should have proper landscaping to allow direct sun to the building.
6. It is the most common type of solar panel for full solar power systems:
a. Unframed Rigid Panels
b. Solar Roofing
c. Flexible Panels
d. Framed Rigid Panels
7. Low Peak Coincidence Factor is which of the following barrier for Solar Power Development
a. Market Related Barrier
b. Institutional Barrier
c. Economical & Technological Barrier
d. Ecological Barrier
8. LEED is a _________________________________.
9. ________________ is a semi – autonomous body within the OECD.
10. SRP stands for ______________________.
1. The audit that focused on evaluating the energy consumption pattern is a:
a. Preliminary Audit
b. Sound Energy Audit
c. Detailed Audit
d. Efficiency Audit
2. Energy Crops are also known as _________________.
3. When plant matter is heated but not burnt to break into solid, liquid and gas is which type of
convention:
a. Chemical Convention
b. Thermo chemical Convention
c. Biochemical Convention
d. Residual Convention
4. An example of a simple passive space heating technology is the ________________.
5. To make solar design effective which of the following is not followed?
a. A building should have large areas of glazing facing the sun.
b. Certain features should be adopted for equal distribution of heat throughout the building.
c. A building should be sufficient to allow heat storage.
d. A building should have proper landscaping to allow direct sun to the building.
6. It is the most common type of solar panel for full solar power systems:
a. Unframed Rigid Panels
b. Solar Roofing
c. Flexible Panels
d. Framed Rigid Panels
7. Low Peak Coincidence Factor is which of the following barrier for Solar Power Development
a. Market Related Barrier
b. Institutional Barrier
c. Economical & Technological Barrier
d. Ecological Barrier
8. LEED is a _________________________________.
9. ________________ is a semi – autonomous body within the OECD.
10. SRP stands for ______________________.
Part Two:
1. Write a short note on ‘Energy Consumption’.
2. Differentiate between Space Heating and Space Cooling.
3. Write a short note on ‘Crop Drying’.
4. What is a ‘Solar Thermal Program’?
1. Write a note on
‘Piecemeal Ratemaking.
2. What are the advantages of the Acquisition of Entergy Corp’s by Mississippi Public Service
Commission?
2. What are the advantages of the Acquisition of Entergy Corp’s by Mississippi Public Service
Commission?
1. Write a note on
‘Electricity Generation in India’.
2. What are the various substitutes adopted by government to prevent Environmental Pollution?
2. What are the various substitutes adopted by government to prevent Environmental Pollution?
1. Write a note on the components of Energy sector.
2. What are the recent trends of Clean Energy?
3. What is Biomass? State the different kinds of Biomass.
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Risk Management and Insurance
Multiple Choices:
1. HMOs charge employers a monthly fee called:
a. A coverage fee
b. The pro rata plan fee
c. The subrogation payment
d. The capitation payment
2. Which of the following alternatives is not a typical dividend option?
a. Cash
b. A lifetime income annuity
c. Reduction of the next premium
d. Accumulation of the next premium
3. Choose the True statement about industrial life insurance.
a. It is less expensive than ordinary life insurance
b. It is more expensive than ordinary life insurance
c. It is also called discount life insurance
d. It is widely used in estate plans
4. Replacement cost at the time of loss less depreciation is the definition of:
a. Actual cash value
b. Fair market value
c. The maximum covered loss
d. The maximum replacement of loss
5. Assets that are readily available to pay claims are called:
a. Admitted assets
b. Accepted assets
c. Real assets
d. Standard operating assets
6. Stare demises means:
a. All things considered
b. Innocent parties prevail
c. It is impolite to stare
d. To stand by decisions
7. In most states the insurance commission is:
a. Impeached
b. Elected
c. Appointed by the government
d. Appointed by the governor
8. The federal law that promotes a safe working environment for workers is:
a. OSHA
b. CERCLA
c. Equal Opportunities Act
d. Superfund
9. The organization that collects data on insurance applicants is the:
a. CBS
b. MIB
c. CIA
d. FCAS
10. The percent of uninsured Americans in 2001 was about:
a. 14 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 4 percent
d. 10 percent
1. HMOs charge employers a monthly fee called:
a. A coverage fee
b. The pro rata plan fee
c. The subrogation payment
d. The capitation payment
2. Which of the following alternatives is not a typical dividend option?
a. Cash
b. A lifetime income annuity
c. Reduction of the next premium
d. Accumulation of the next premium
3. Choose the True statement about industrial life insurance.
a. It is less expensive than ordinary life insurance
b. It is more expensive than ordinary life insurance
c. It is also called discount life insurance
d. It is widely used in estate plans
4. Replacement cost at the time of loss less depreciation is the definition of:
a. Actual cash value
b. Fair market value
c. The maximum covered loss
d. The maximum replacement of loss
5. Assets that are readily available to pay claims are called:
a. Admitted assets
b. Accepted assets
c. Real assets
d. Standard operating assets
6. Stare demises means:
a. All things considered
b. Innocent parties prevail
c. It is impolite to stare
d. To stand by decisions
7. In most states the insurance commission is:
a. Impeached
b. Elected
c. Appointed by the government
d. Appointed by the governor
8. The federal law that promotes a safe working environment for workers is:
a. OSHA
b. CERCLA
c. Equal Opportunities Act
d. Superfund
9. The organization that collects data on insurance applicants is the:
a. CBS
b. MIB
c. CIA
d. FCAS
10. The percent of uninsured Americans in 2001 was about:
a. 14 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 4 percent
d. 10 percent
Part Two:
1. What are Moral and Morale hazards?
2. What do you understand by ‘Subsidization’?
3. What are ‘Waiver’ & ‘Estoppel’?
4. Write a short note on ‘Patient’s bill of rights.
1. Do you think that
Sparkler Mutual should pay for the loss? Explain your reasons.
2. Did the family’s absence affect the chance of loss in this case?
2. Did the family’s absence affect the chance of loss in this case?
1. What arguments would you
make if you were planning the legal defense of Total Power and
Light Company?
2. If you were on the jury in this case, would you award a judgment for damages to Jones? Explain
your reasons.
Light Company?
2. If you were on the jury in this case, would you award a judgment for damages to Jones? Explain
your reasons.
1. If you were a large business
with $ 10 million of property, would you want your primary
insurer to purchase reinsurance? Explain your reasons. Would you prefer to deal with a small
primary insurer who reinsured your risk or a large primary unsurer who did not purchase
reinsurance?
2. Do you think a college education is necessary to perform the following occupations
effectively?
a. Life insurance agent
b. Loss adjuster
c. Property insurance underwriter
d. Actuary
insurer to purchase reinsurance? Explain your reasons. Would you prefer to deal with a small
primary insurer who reinsured your risk or a large primary unsurer who did not purchase
reinsurance?
2. Do you think a college education is necessary to perform the following occupations
effectively?
a. Life insurance agent
b. Loss adjuster
c. Property insurance underwriter
d. Actuary
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International Trade
Multiple Choices:
1. _________is beneficial between two nations that have strong markets in two different sectors.
a. Economic Growth
b. International Trade
c. Trade Integration
d. Trade Diversion
2. What is the full form of UNCTAD?
a. United Nation Conference on Trade and Development
b. Union Nations Committee of Trade and Development
c. Union Nations Conference on Trade and Development
d. None of the above
3. ______is fixed through negotiation between the importing country and the exporting country.
a. Tariff Quota
b. Bilateral Quota
c. Mixing Quota
d. Unilateral Quota
4. Under which Act Reserve Code Number is required?
a. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
b. Custom Act
c. Export Import Control Act
d. Foreign Trade Act
5. Which policy of the government will have a direct bearing on the exchange rate of the country?
a. Fiscal Policy
b. Instrument of Trade Policy
c. Monetary Policy
d. Both ‘a’ & ‘c’
6. Which scheme helps the exporters in procuring imported raw materials?
a. IES
b. C.C.S.
c. IRS
d. None of the above
7. Which of the following factor affecting the Exchange rate?
a. Purchasing power Parity
b. Exchange Control
c. Balance of Payments
d. All of the above
8. The system of permitting the currencies to move within a band is called___________.
a. Snake in the tunnel
b. Turtle Device
c. UNCTAD
d. None of the above
9. Periodic, as often as daily devaluations of pre-announced magnitude means________.
a. Managed Float Regime
b. The crawling Peg Regime
c. Single currency Peg
d. Composite currency Peg
10. The Export Policy of Government of India can be divided into_______ distinct phases.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
1. _________is beneficial between two nations that have strong markets in two different sectors.
a. Economic Growth
b. International Trade
c. Trade Integration
d. Trade Diversion
2. What is the full form of UNCTAD?
a. United Nation Conference on Trade and Development
b. Union Nations Committee of Trade and Development
c. Union Nations Conference on Trade and Development
d. None of the above
3. ______is fixed through negotiation between the importing country and the exporting country.
a. Tariff Quota
b. Bilateral Quota
c. Mixing Quota
d. Unilateral Quota
4. Under which Act Reserve Code Number is required?
a. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
b. Custom Act
c. Export Import Control Act
d. Foreign Trade Act
5. Which policy of the government will have a direct bearing on the exchange rate of the country?
a. Fiscal Policy
b. Instrument of Trade Policy
c. Monetary Policy
d. Both ‘a’ & ‘c’
6. Which scheme helps the exporters in procuring imported raw materials?
a. IES
b. C.C.S.
c. IRS
d. None of the above
7. Which of the following factor affecting the Exchange rate?
a. Purchasing power Parity
b. Exchange Control
c. Balance of Payments
d. All of the above
8. The system of permitting the currencies to move within a band is called___________.
a. Snake in the tunnel
b. Turtle Device
c. UNCTAD
d. None of the above
9. Periodic, as often as daily devaluations of pre-announced magnitude means________.
a. Managed Float Regime
b. The crawling Peg Regime
c. Single currency Peg
d. Composite currency Peg
10. The Export Policy of Government of India can be divided into_______ distinct phases.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Part Two:
1. Write a brief note on “INTERNATIONAL MONETARY FUND”.
2. Write the components of the Uruguay Round Agreement.
3. Differentiate between Export Expansion and Import Substitution.
4. Explain the Term:-
a. Bill of Landing
b. Marine Insurance Policy
1. Discuss the problem that
comforts the Tea Industry in the International sphere.
2. How you asses would the Tea producing states has recommended a package of fiscal reliefs?
2. How you asses would the Tea producing states has recommended a package of fiscal reliefs?
1. What are the social
costs of benefits to Martin’s Textiles of shifting production to Mexica?
2. What seems to be the most ethical action?
1. Describe the current issues affecting the Exchange Rate of India.
2. Explain briefly “New Trade Theory”.
2. What seems to be the most ethical action?
1. Describe the current issues affecting the Exchange Rate of India.
2. Explain briefly “New Trade Theory”.
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Insurance Management
Multiple choices:
1. India’s first insurance company was established in:
a. 1818
b. 1817
c. 1718
d. 1950
2. The word ‘Ombudsman’ in Insurance means:
a. Appointment of an official to sell the goods.
b. Appointment of an official to investigate the complaints.
c. Appointment of an official to inspect the quality of goods.
d. Appointment of an official to supervise the work force.
3. Insurance is a:
a. Contract
b. document
c. Agreement
d. Both (a) & (b)
4. ‘Asha deep’ is an Insurance:
a. Related to dreaded disease or death
b. Related to theft
c. Related to fire
d. Related to crops
5. ‘Actuary’ is:
a. A book that contains death data
b. A book that contains statics of production
c. A person expert in statics
d. A person expert in agent ship
6. ‘Snobbish’ customers are:
a. Self loving or egoist customer
b. Those who lack confidence
c. Those who take quick and immediate decision
d. Logical customers who ask a lot of questions
7. What stands for ‘I’ in AIDAS related with the knowledge of selling process?
a. Ideal
b. Idol
c. Income
d. Interest
8. Endowment Policy is:
a. Sum of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
b. Difference of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
c. Sum of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
d. Difference of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
9. In case of Suicide in India:
a. It is not a crime
b. It is a crime
c. It has no relation with the Insurance Policy
d. None of the above can be said
10. USP stands for:
a. Unique Sales Promotion
b. Unique Sales Process
c. Unique Selling Proposition
d. None of the above
1. India’s first insurance company was established in:
a. 1818
b. 1817
c. 1718
d. 1950
2. The word ‘Ombudsman’ in Insurance means:
a. Appointment of an official to sell the goods.
b. Appointment of an official to investigate the complaints.
c. Appointment of an official to inspect the quality of goods.
d. Appointment of an official to supervise the work force.
3. Insurance is a:
a. Contract
b. document
c. Agreement
d. Both (a) & (b)
4. ‘Asha deep’ is an Insurance:
a. Related to dreaded disease or death
b. Related to theft
c. Related to fire
d. Related to crops
5. ‘Actuary’ is:
a. A book that contains death data
b. A book that contains statics of production
c. A person expert in statics
d. A person expert in agent ship
6. ‘Snobbish’ customers are:
a. Self loving or egoist customer
b. Those who lack confidence
c. Those who take quick and immediate decision
d. Logical customers who ask a lot of questions
7. What stands for ‘I’ in AIDAS related with the knowledge of selling process?
a. Ideal
b. Idol
c. Income
d. Interest
8. Endowment Policy is:
a. Sum of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
b. Difference of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
c. Sum of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
d. Difference of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
9. In case of Suicide in India:
a. It is not a crime
b. It is a crime
c. It has no relation with the Insurance Policy
d. None of the above can be said
10. USP stands for:
a. Unique Sales Promotion
b. Unique Sales Process
c. Unique Selling Proposition
d. None of the above
Part Two:
1. Elaborate the functionality of ‘Married Women’s Property Act’ of India.
2. What are the necessary documents that have to be submitted for getting a License for agent
ship in Insurance Business?
3. Mention any two Insurance Policies for Handicapped.
4. What is ‘Charter Policy Parity’?
1. What are the basic
factors required as you feel for further improvement in Pricing?
2. According to some industry watches, the big players like Reliance the Tata, and the Birlas
contribute to almost 30% of the total premium collected by GIC and its four subsidiaries. And to
the extent, GIC and its subsidiaries could see their business shrink. Comment.
2. According to some industry watches, the big players like Reliance the Tata, and the Birlas
contribute to almost 30% of the total premium collected by GIC and its four subsidiaries. And to
the extent, GIC and its subsidiaries could see their business shrink. Comment.
1. What according to you,
ABCL should have used to claim its best insurance refunds?
1. How does Money Back Policy differ from Endowment Assurance? Which one is a better
option and why?
2. How important is the Consumer Protection Act an in today’s world of consumerism?
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Indian Foreign Trade
Part One:
1. Which of the following is NOT an initiative for attracting a higher Quantum of FDI?
a. Further Liberalization of Foreign Trade Policy
b. Rationalisation of Labour Policy
c. Development of Infrastructure
d. Increase in Joint ventures
2. ECB stands for ______________________________
3. The textile and garment exports have been affected due to __________________
4. _____ is a popular export inductive scheme.
5. To overcome many of the problems associated with the advance licensing system this scheme
was introduced
a. Passbook Scheme
b. EPGC Scheme
c. Post Export Duty Exemption Scheme
d. Duty Drawback Scheme
6. Which of the following is a potential Export product
a. Automobile Products c. Agricultural Products
b. Leather Products d. Engineering Products
7. To give a special trust for export of computer software which of the following scheme was
developed
a. DEPB Scheme c. EOU/EPI Scheme
b. EPCG Scheme d. Duty Exemption scheme
8. It is a bilateral agreement between two countries to purchase specific amounts of each other’s
products over a specified period of time
a. Swap c. Clearing
b. Switch d. Evidence Accounts
9. TRIPS stands for ____________________________
10. Foreign Investment Promotion Board does not consist which of the following member
a. Secretary Minister of External Affairs
b. Industry Secretary - Chairman
c. Foreign Investment Minister
d. Finance Secretary
1. Which of the following is NOT an initiative for attracting a higher Quantum of FDI?
a. Further Liberalization of Foreign Trade Policy
b. Rationalisation of Labour Policy
c. Development of Infrastructure
d. Increase in Joint ventures
2. ECB stands for ______________________________
3. The textile and garment exports have been affected due to __________________
4. _____ is a popular export inductive scheme.
5. To overcome many of the problems associated with the advance licensing system this scheme
was introduced
a. Passbook Scheme
b. EPGC Scheme
c. Post Export Duty Exemption Scheme
d. Duty Drawback Scheme
6. Which of the following is a potential Export product
a. Automobile Products c. Agricultural Products
b. Leather Products d. Engineering Products
7. To give a special trust for export of computer software which of the following scheme was
developed
a. DEPB Scheme c. EOU/EPI Scheme
b. EPCG Scheme d. Duty Exemption scheme
8. It is a bilateral agreement between two countries to purchase specific amounts of each other’s
products over a specified period of time
a. Swap c. Clearing
b. Switch d. Evidence Accounts
9. TRIPS stands for ____________________________
10. Foreign Investment Promotion Board does not consist which of the following member
a. Secretary Minister of External Affairs
b. Industry Secretary - Chairman
c. Foreign Investment Minister
d. Finance Secretary
Part Two:
1. Write a short note on ‘Globalisation’?
2. Differentiate between Current Account Convertibility and Capital Account Convertibility?
3. Define ‘Deemed Exports’?
4. Discus the measures announced in the Union Budget 1990 – 00 for Trade Policy Reforms?
Q. Give some suggestions to
improve the Government and Public Relations?
Q 1. Discuss the measures
adopted by the bank for promoting its retail products?
Q2. Evaluate the impact of strategies on financial performance of the firm?
1. What are the major features of EXIM policy 1992 - 97?
2. Discuss the elements of the Capital Account?
3. Describe the state’s role in Export Promotion?
Q2. Evaluate the impact of strategies on financial performance of the firm?
1. What are the major features of EXIM policy 1992 - 97?
2. Discuss the elements of the Capital Account?
3. Describe the state’s role in Export Promotion?
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Principles and Practice of Management
Multiple Choices:
1. A plan is a trap laid to capture the ________.
a. Future
b. Past
c. Policy
d. Procedure
2. It is the function of employing suitable person for the enterprise
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Controlling
3. ___________ means “ group of activities & employees into departments”
a. Orientation
b. Standardization
c. Process
d. Departmentation
4. This theory states that authority is the power that is accepted by others
a. Acceptance theory
b. Competence theory
c. Formal authority theory
d. Informal authority theory
5. It means dispersal of decision-making power to the lower levels of the organization
a. Decentralization
b. Centralization
c. Dispersion
d. Delegation
6. This chart is the basic document of the organizational structure
a. Functional chart
b. Posts chart
c. Master chart
d. Departmental chart
7. Communication which flow from the superiors to subordinates with the help of scalar
chain is known as
a. Informal communication
b. Downward communication
c. Upward communication
d. Oral communication
8. Needs for belongingness, friendship, love, affection, attention & social acceptance are
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Ego needs
d. Social needs
9. A management function which ensures “jobs to be filled with the right people, with the
right knowledge, skill & attitude”
a. Staffing defined
b. Job analysis
c. Manpower planning
d. Recruitment
10. It is a process that enables a person to sort out issues and reach to a decisions affecting
their life
a. Selection
b. Raining
c. Reward
d. Counseling
1. A plan is a trap laid to capture the ________.
a. Future
b. Past
c. Policy
d. Procedure
2. It is the function of employing suitable person for the enterprise
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Controlling
3. ___________ means “ group of activities & employees into departments”
a. Orientation
b. Standardization
c. Process
d. Departmentation
4. This theory states that authority is the power that is accepted by others
a. Acceptance theory
b. Competence theory
c. Formal authority theory
d. Informal authority theory
5. It means dispersal of decision-making power to the lower levels of the organization
a. Decentralization
b. Centralization
c. Dispersion
d. Delegation
6. This chart is the basic document of the organizational structure
a. Functional chart
b. Posts chart
c. Master chart
d. Departmental chart
7. Communication which flow from the superiors to subordinates with the help of scalar
chain is known as
a. Informal communication
b. Downward communication
c. Upward communication
d. Oral communication
8. Needs for belongingness, friendship, love, affection, attention & social acceptance are
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Ego needs
d. Social needs
9. A management function which ensures “jobs to be filled with the right people, with the
right knowledge, skill & attitude”
a. Staffing defined
b. Job analysis
c. Manpower planning
d. Recruitment
10. It is a process that enables a person to sort out issues and reach to a decisions affecting
their life
a. Selection
b. Raining
c. Reward
d. Counseling
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between ‘Administration’ and ‘Management’.
2. What were the common drawbacks in classical and Neo classical theories of management?
3. Write a short note on “Line Organization.”
4. Write a short note on ‘Acceptance theory’.
1. Critically analyze Mr.
Vincent’s reasoning.
2. If you were the professor and you knew what was going through Vincent’s mind, what would you
say to Vincent?
2. If you were the professor and you knew what was going through Vincent’s mind, what would you
say to Vincent?
1. Diagnose the problem and
enumerate the reasons for the failure of D’Cuhna?
2. What could D’Cuhna have done to avoid the situation in which he found himself?
1. What is Training? Explain the different methods of training?
2. Explain Decision-Making process of an organization?
2. What could D’Cuhna have done to avoid the situation in which he found himself?
1. What is Training? Explain the different methods of training?
2. Explain Decision-Making process of an organization?
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Foreign Exchange Management
Part One:
1. It is established to help countries in reconstructing their economies in the post World War II?
a. International Monetary Fund
b. World Bank
c. International Finance Corporation
d. International Development Association
2. The exchange rates which is variable between currencies and determined by demand and supply
a. Floating Exchange Rate System c. Fixed Exchange Rate System
b. Free Float d. Managed float
3. The branches which do not maintain independent foreign currency accounts but have powers to
operate the accounts falls under
a. Category A c. Category B
b. Category C d. Category D
4. _____ quote is given by a bank to its retail customers
a. Merchant Quote c. Interbank Quote
b. American Quote d. European Quote
5. To take the base rate and add the appropriate margin to it is an
a. Spot TT Buying Rate c. Spot TT Selling Rate
b. Forward TT Buying Rate d. Forward TT Selling Rate
6. Which of the following is not an assumption to Law of One Price
a. Movement of Goods c. No Transaction Costs
b. No Tariffs d. Relative Form of PPP
7. The approach in which the value of a currency is determined by the relative demand and supply
of money and, the relative demand and supply of bonds is
a. The Monetary Approach c. Exchange Rate Volatility Approach
c. The Asset Approach d. The Portfolio Balance Approach
8. Which of the following is the most important currency in the world after the collapse of Bretten
Woods
a. Yen c. US Dollar
b. Sterling d. DM
9. Option Forward is a
a. Forward Contract entered along with buying a call option.
b. Forward Contract entered along with writing a put option
c. Forward Contract entered by buying or selling at a future date.
d. Forward Contract entered by buying or selling over a period.
10. Hedging aims to
a. Increase Profits c. Reduce Costs
b. Maximize Profits d. Minimize Risk
1. It is established to help countries in reconstructing their economies in the post World War II?
a. International Monetary Fund
b. World Bank
c. International Finance Corporation
d. International Development Association
2. The exchange rates which is variable between currencies and determined by demand and supply
a. Floating Exchange Rate System c. Fixed Exchange Rate System
b. Free Float d. Managed float
3. The branches which do not maintain independent foreign currency accounts but have powers to
operate the accounts falls under
a. Category A c. Category B
b. Category C d. Category D
4. _____ quote is given by a bank to its retail customers
a. Merchant Quote c. Interbank Quote
b. American Quote d. European Quote
5. To take the base rate and add the appropriate margin to it is an
a. Spot TT Buying Rate c. Spot TT Selling Rate
b. Forward TT Buying Rate d. Forward TT Selling Rate
6. Which of the following is not an assumption to Law of One Price
a. Movement of Goods c. No Transaction Costs
b. No Tariffs d. Relative Form of PPP
7. The approach in which the value of a currency is determined by the relative demand and supply
of money and, the relative demand and supply of bonds is
a. The Monetary Approach c. Exchange Rate Volatility Approach
c. The Asset Approach d. The Portfolio Balance Approach
8. Which of the following is the most important currency in the world after the collapse of Bretten
Woods
a. Yen c. US Dollar
b. Sterling d. DM
9. Option Forward is a
a. Forward Contract entered along with buying a call option.
b. Forward Contract entered along with writing a put option
c. Forward Contract entered by buying or selling at a future date.
d. Forward Contract entered by buying or selling over a period.
10. Hedging aims to
a. Increase Profits c. Reduce Costs
b. Maximize Profits d. Minimize Risk
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between Forward Rates and Expected Spot Rates?
2. Write a note on ‘Swaps’?
3. Differentiate between Bid Rate and Ask Rate?
4. Write a note on ‘Interest Rate Parity’?
Q 1. How does the
international asset swap mechanism work? Explain.
Q2. Discuss the various benefits of international asset swaps.
Q2. Discuss the various benefits of international asset swaps.
Q 1. What measures according
to you the RBI should take to manage rupee-dollar exchange rates?
Q2. Do you think appreciation of rupee against dollar have any significant adverse impact on the Indian economy? Discuss.
1. How many types of Exposures are there in terms of Exchange Risk?
2. Write a note on
International Monetary Fund
International Finance Corporation
International Development Association
Q2. Do you think appreciation of rupee against dollar have any significant adverse impact on the Indian economy? Discuss.
1. How many types of Exposures are there in terms of Exchange Risk?
2. Write a note on
International Monetary Fund
International Finance Corporation
International Development Association
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Export Import Management:
Multiple Choices:
1. In case of goods being rejected or wrong shipments which section of customer act provides
drawback facility on the customer’s duty?
a. Section 47
b. Section 88
c. Section 74
d. Section 40
2. Risks arising out of foreign law due to________________.
a. Lack of knowledge about foreign market
b. Expensive and complex litigation
c Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. None of the above
3. Import LC is also known as ______________________.
a. Letter of Debt
b. Bills of exchange
c. Open account
d. Letter of credit
4. How much digits are there in IEC number?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
5. What is the full form of RFID?
a. Rural Fund Information Development
b. Request For International Development
c. Radio Frequency Identification System
d. Radio Frequency Internal System
6. The Export Inspection Council is a _____________________.
a. Support the export corporation
b. Responsible for the enforcement of QC
c. Administrative control of the ministry of Commerce & industry
d. Provides consultancy to export organization
7. The World Trade Organization was formed in_________________.
a. 1994
b. 1995
c. 1996
d. 1997
8. Government policies are related to__________________________.
a. Income tax
b. Sales tax
c. Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. None of the above
9. Clearing and forwarding agents are an important link between_______________.
a. The exporter and various other agencies
b. The importer and various other agencies
c. Import and export of goods
d. All of the above
10. Which Regional issues are important to commercial success?
a. Taxation matters
b. Importance of negotiations
c. Degree of market risk
d. All of the above
1. In case of goods being rejected or wrong shipments which section of customer act provides
drawback facility on the customer’s duty?
a. Section 47
b. Section 88
c. Section 74
d. Section 40
2. Risks arising out of foreign law due to________________.
a. Lack of knowledge about foreign market
b. Expensive and complex litigation
c Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. None of the above
3. Import LC is also known as ______________________.
a. Letter of Debt
b. Bills of exchange
c. Open account
d. Letter of credit
4. How much digits are there in IEC number?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
5. What is the full form of RFID?
a. Rural Fund Information Development
b. Request For International Development
c. Radio Frequency Identification System
d. Radio Frequency Internal System
6. The Export Inspection Council is a _____________________.
a. Support the export corporation
b. Responsible for the enforcement of QC
c. Administrative control of the ministry of Commerce & industry
d. Provides consultancy to export organization
7. The World Trade Organization was formed in_________________.
a. 1994
b. 1995
c. 1996
d. 1997
8. Government policies are related to__________________________.
a. Income tax
b. Sales tax
c. Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. None of the above
9. Clearing and forwarding agents are an important link between_______________.
a. The exporter and various other agencies
b. The importer and various other agencies
c. Import and export of goods
d. All of the above
10. Which Regional issues are important to commercial success?
a. Taxation matters
b. Importance of negotiations
c. Degree of market risk
d. All of the above
Part Two:
1. Define EDI procedure.
2. Differentiation between “Measurement Rules” and “Pallet Rules”.
3. Explain the Benefits of Electronic Procurement.
4. What is DGCI$S?
5. Define the role of intermediaries in Shipping Industry.
1. The public package meal
companies implement service-time availability of difficulties, Explain.
2. The introduction of third-party logistics services to the public packet meals would you put forward any firm recommendations?
2. The introduction of third-party logistics services to the public packet meals would you put forward any firm recommendations?
1. Why do we say UPS is an
international logistics business, and general transport logistics
Company?
2. To describe the international express logistics enterprises in the development prospects.
1. Discuss the role of Banks in an export-import transaction.
2. Describe briefly the steps involved in export business to succeed in the era of
Globalization.
Company?
2. To describe the international express logistics enterprises in the development prospects.
1. Discuss the role of Banks in an export-import transaction.
2. Describe briefly the steps involved in export business to succeed in the era of
Globalization.
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Services Marketing
Multiple Choices:
1. The extent to which customers recognize and willing to accept this variation is called:
a. Zone of tolerance
b. Zone of fitness
c. Zone of acceptance
d. None of the above
2. SERVQUAL is used to measure service quality. (T/F)
3. SWICS stands for………………………………………………………………………………
4. Real /perceived and monetary/non monetary costs are termed as switching costs.(T/F)
5. TARP stands for ……………………………………………………………………………….
6. If the direct cost be ‘a’, overhead cost be ‘b’ and profit margin be ‘c’ then the cost based pricing
can be calculated by:
a. a+b+c
b. a-b+c
c. a/b*c
d. None of the above
7. If the percentage change in quality purchased be ‘a’ and the percentage change in price be ’b’
then elasticity is given by:
a. a*b
b. a/b
c. a+b
d. a-b
8. If the actual revenue be ‘a’ and the potential revenue be ‘b’ then the yield can be given by:
a. a-b
b. a+b
c. a/b
Examination Paper: Customer Relationship Management
8
IIBM Institute of Business Management
d. b/a
9. Reactors make adjustments unless forced to do so by environmental pressures.(T/F)
10. Least profitable customers are categorized in:
a. Platinum
b. Gold
c. Iron
d. Lead
1. The extent to which customers recognize and willing to accept this variation is called:
a. Zone of tolerance
b. Zone of fitness
c. Zone of acceptance
d. None of the above
2. SERVQUAL is used to measure service quality. (T/F)
3. SWICS stands for………………………………………………………………………………
4. Real /perceived and monetary/non monetary costs are termed as switching costs.(T/F)
5. TARP stands for ……………………………………………………………………………….
6. If the direct cost be ‘a’, overhead cost be ‘b’ and profit margin be ‘c’ then the cost based pricing
can be calculated by:
a. a+b+c
b. a-b+c
c. a/b*c
d. None of the above
7. If the percentage change in quality purchased be ‘a’ and the percentage change in price be ’b’
then elasticity is given by:
a. a*b
b. a/b
c. a+b
d. a-b
8. If the actual revenue be ‘a’ and the potential revenue be ‘b’ then the yield can be given by:
a. a-b
b. a+b
c. a/b
Examination Paper: Customer Relationship Management
8
IIBM Institute of Business Management
d. b/a
9. Reactors make adjustments unless forced to do so by environmental pressures.(T/F)
10. Least profitable customers are categorized in:
a. Platinum
b. Gold
c. Iron
d. Lead
Part Two:
1. What do you understand by “Customer Gap”?
2. Write the difference between perceptions of service quality and customer satisfaction.
3. Write short “SERVQUAL” survey.
4. What are different types of “Complainer”?
1. How do you think
Giordano had/would have to adapt its marketing and operations strategies and
tactics when entering and penetrating your country?
2. What general lessons can be learned from Giordano for other major clothing retailers in your
country?
tactics when entering and penetrating your country?
2. What general lessons can be learned from Giordano for other major clothing retailers in your
country?
1. What did Jyske Bank
change to enable it to deliver its new competitive positioning?
2. How did Jyske Bank implement those changes?
2. How did Jyske Bank implement those changes?
1. Choose a firm you are familiar with. Describe how you would design an ideal service recovery
strategy for that organization.
2. Discuss the customer’s role as a productive resource for the firm. Describe a time when you
played this role. What did you do and how feel? Did the firm help you perform your role
effectively? How?
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Customer Relationship Management
Multiple Choices:
1. High congruence means:
a. High probability of success
b. Low probability of success
c. Zero probability of success
d. None of the above
2. Novo Jim’s excellent resource book for Recency, Frequency and Monetary is:
a. Drilling high
b. Digging the top
c. Cutting edges
d. Drilling down
3. What stands for ‘R’ in FURPS?
a. Responsibility
b. Resource
c. Retention
d. Reliability
4. NAICS stands for:
a. National American Industry Coding System
b. North American Industry Cooling System
c. National American Industry Cooling System
d. North American Industry Coding System
5. The book ‘Reengineering the corporation’ was written by:
a. Michael Hammer and James Champy
b. Michael Champy and James Hammer
c. Michael Douglus and James Ferrari
d. Michael Ferrari and James Douglus
6. The book ‘Building the Data warehouse’ was written by:
a. Michael Doglus
b. James Champy
c. Bill Inmon
d. James Ferrari
7. Which is considered as the bible of database marketing?
a. ‘Drilling High’
b. ‘Building the Data warehouse’
c. ‘The complete database marketer’
d. ‘Drilling down’
8. CASE stands for:
a. Customer Aided Software Engineering
b. Computer Aided Software Engineering
c. Customer Aided System Engineering
d. Computer Aided System Engineering
9. What stands for ‘B’ in BBB?
a. Bail
b. Buffer
c. Bureau
d. Block
10. If high quality is one of the attribute then:
a. It will be suicidal to ship products with high DOA
b. It will be beneficial to ship products with high DOA
c. It will be suicidal to ship products with low DOA
d. It will be beneficial to ship products with low DOA
1. High congruence means:
a. High probability of success
b. Low probability of success
c. Zero probability of success
d. None of the above
2. Novo Jim’s excellent resource book for Recency, Frequency and Monetary is:
a. Drilling high
b. Digging the top
c. Cutting edges
d. Drilling down
3. What stands for ‘R’ in FURPS?
a. Responsibility
b. Resource
c. Retention
d. Reliability
4. NAICS stands for:
a. National American Industry Coding System
b. North American Industry Cooling System
c. National American Industry Cooling System
d. North American Industry Coding System
5. The book ‘Reengineering the corporation’ was written by:
a. Michael Hammer and James Champy
b. Michael Champy and James Hammer
c. Michael Douglus and James Ferrari
d. Michael Ferrari and James Douglus
6. The book ‘Building the Data warehouse’ was written by:
a. Michael Doglus
b. James Champy
c. Bill Inmon
d. James Ferrari
7. Which is considered as the bible of database marketing?
a. ‘Drilling High’
b. ‘Building the Data warehouse’
c. ‘The complete database marketer’
d. ‘Drilling down’
8. CASE stands for:
a. Customer Aided Software Engineering
b. Computer Aided Software Engineering
c. Customer Aided System Engineering
d. Computer Aided System Engineering
9. What stands for ‘B’ in BBB?
a. Bail
b. Buffer
c. Bureau
d. Block
10. If high quality is one of the attribute then:
a. It will be suicidal to ship products with high DOA
b. It will be beneficial to ship products with high DOA
c. It will be suicidal to ship products with low DOA
d. It will be beneficial to ship products with low DOA
Part Two:
1. Why e- CRM is important in present life?
2. Describe the 3 phases of ‘Waterfall Model’.
3. Write the significance of ‘N/13 Test’ prioritization.
4. What is ‘Life time value’ related with customer?
5. What are ‘Warehouse data(s)’?
1. In what way would
multi-skilling help in solving the problems of the plant?
2. Do you think that the company’s policy of entering into term settlement is appropriate? Give
reasons.
2. Do you think that the company’s policy of entering into term settlement is appropriate? Give
reasons.
. What are the key
application components of Mitsubishi’s CRM system? What is the business
purpose of each of them?
2. Do you approve of Mitsubishi’s approach to acquiring and installing its CRM system? Why or
why not?
purpose of each of them?
2. Do you approve of Mitsubishi’s approach to acquiring and installing its CRM system? Why or
why not?
1. If all the numbers are large, the project way is too big. Can you identify a logical chunk of the
problem that would make a setup toward improving the situation? What kind of “offer” would
you want to make to your customers as a result of completing the small chunk?
2. Who can you get for the program core team? These must be individuals who are good enough at
their real jobs that the company can’t afford to have them take on anything new. The real test of
serious organizational commitment is that the company can’t afford to put anyone else on the
core team; it has to be the best.
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Inventory Management
Multiple Choices:
1. ……………………. is IT tool used for automation data capture.
2. Stockout Level is also called the
a. Red Zone
b. Amber Zone
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
3. When classified on the basis of time period, they are
a. Supply forecast
b. Price forecast
c. Demand forecast
d. None of the above
4. The Delphi Method was developed by the Rand Corporation in the
a. 1980
b. 1970
c. 1950
d. None of the above
5. The BOM file is also called the
a. Product Structure File
b. Product Tree
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
6. What is the meaning of “Doller Days”.
a. Making money with in area
b. Management of the value of inventory and time with in area
c. Inventory control
d. Management of time
7. Weeks of supply = ……………………………………………..
8. Fastest and Expensive mode of Transport.
a. Air
b. Rail
c. Water
d. Pipeline
9. ERP systems were developed in
a. 1998
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1987
10. The ABC analysis is also called the ………………………………
Part Two:
1. What is “Dependent Demand”?
2. Write short note on “Simulation Models”.
3. What is “Time Phasing”.
4. Write short note on “Statistical Techniques of Forecasting”.
1. Keeping in mind the
objectives, do you think the company should go in for a highly
integrated system? Support your answer with reasons.
2. Discuss the relevant inventory management strategies for the company.
integrated system? Support your answer with reasons.
2. Discuss the relevant inventory management strategies for the company.
1. What arguments are there
in favour of a formal salvage program at Advanced Management
University?
2. What arguments would be expected against the program?
3. What organisational structure should Julie Joy install?
4. Develop a salvage program for Advanced Management University.
University?
2. What arguments would be expected against the program?
3. What organisational structure should Julie Joy install?
4. Develop a salvage program for Advanced Management University.
1. At Ford Motor company, every car or truck model has its own internal website to track design,
production, quality control and delivery processes. Suppliers and customers also have access
to the site, and all concerned are expected to provide full supply chain information. How do
you think this would affect the life of the middle manager?
2. Give example of some typical case where inventory management based on unscientific method
could go wrong.
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Quality Control
Multiple Choices:
1. A curve that shows the amount inspected by both the consumer and the producer for different
percent nonconforming values.
a. ASN curve
b. ATI curve
c. AOQ curve
d. None of the above
2. The producer’s risk is represented by the symbols:
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. None of the above
3. The International Committee of Weights and Measures revised the metric system in:
a. 1970
b. 1960
c. 1950
d. 1999
4. ASRS stands for……………………………………………………………………..
5. A recent survey of retail customers by the ……………………………………………..
6. A cause-and-effect diagram was developed by ………………………………………
7. Variables that exhibit gaps are called ………………………………
8. How many techniques used to discard data?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None of the above
9. Deviation charts are also called:
a. Difference chart
b. Nominal chart
c. Target chart
d. All of the above
10. Dodge-Romig Tables developed by:
a. H.F. Dodge
b. H.G. Romig
c. H.K. Fleming
d. Both (a) & (b)
1. A curve that shows the amount inspected by both the consumer and the producer for different
percent nonconforming values.
a. ASN curve
b. ATI curve
c. AOQ curve
d. None of the above
2. The producer’s risk is represented by the symbols:
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. None of the above
3. The International Committee of Weights and Measures revised the metric system in:
a. 1970
b. 1960
c. 1950
d. 1999
4. ASRS stands for……………………………………………………………………..
5. A recent survey of retail customers by the ……………………………………………..
6. A cause-and-effect diagram was developed by ………………………………………
7. Variables that exhibit gaps are called ………………………………
8. How many techniques used to discard data?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None of the above
9. Deviation charts are also called:
a. Difference chart
b. Nominal chart
c. Target chart
d. All of the above
10. Dodge-Romig Tables developed by:
a. H.F. Dodge
b. H.G. Romig
c. H.K. Fleming
d. Both (a) & (b)
Part Two:
1. Write short note on “Group Chart”.
2. What is “Measures of Dispersion”?
3. What is “Collection of Data”?
4. Write short note on “Binomial Probability Distribution”.
1. If you were a part of
the top management at M&M FES, how would you have involved the
workers in the Deming programme?
2. Do you think that M&M FES has a strategic quality management system in place?
workers in the Deming programme?
2. Do you think that M&M FES has a strategic quality management system in place?
1. What lessons can Indian
companies take from FedEx?
2. What are the factors that have gone against India and why did FedEx not start its operations here?
1. An electrician testing the incoming the voltage for a residential house obtains 5 readings: 115,
113, 121, 115, and 116. What is the average?
2. What are the factors that have gone against India and why did FedEx not start its operations here?
1. An electrician testing the incoming the voltage for a residential house obtains 5 readings: 115,
113, 121, 115, and 116. What is the average?
2. A single sampling plan is desired with a consumer’s risk of 0.10 of accepting 3.0%
nonconforming product and a producer’s risk of 0.05 of not accepting 0.7% nonconforming
product. Select the plan with the lowest sample size.
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Management Information Systems
Multiple choices:
1. The BCD(binary code division) equivalent of (13)10 is
a. D
b. 1101
c. 00010010
d. 00010011
2. These systems are intended to help individual managers in their decision-making capability.
a. Management information
b. Executive support
c. Decision support
d. Office automation
3. Linux is a ……. Bit UNIX like operating system.
a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. 8
4. This is the ability of a system to repair itself, survive and grow by importing resources from its
environment and transforming them into outputs.
a. Negative entropy
b. Positive entropy
c. Entropy
d. Neutral entropy
5. A computer-based information system that increase the efficiency and productivity of
managers and office workers through document and message processing is known as
a. Decision support system
b. Management information system
c. Office automation system
d. Transaction processing system
6. Which is a multiuser operating system
a. MS DOS
b. Windows NT
c. VMS
d. None
7. More information and knowledge is an advantage of this decision-making.
a. Individual
b. Strategic
c. Operational
d. Group
8. ISDN stands for
a. International service digital network
b. International service data network
c. Integrated service digital network
d. Integrated service data network
9. MYCIN is a popular expert system used for
a. Financial planning
b. Mineral exploration
c. Mass spectrography
d. Medical diagnosis
10. This refers to the flow of information among people on the same or similar organizational
level.
a. Diagonal
b. Upward
c. Horizontal
d. Downward
1. The BCD(binary code division) equivalent of (13)10 is
a. D
b. 1101
c. 00010010
d. 00010011
2. These systems are intended to help individual managers in their decision-making capability.
a. Management information
b. Executive support
c. Decision support
d. Office automation
3. Linux is a ……. Bit UNIX like operating system.
a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. 8
4. This is the ability of a system to repair itself, survive and grow by importing resources from its
environment and transforming them into outputs.
a. Negative entropy
b. Positive entropy
c. Entropy
d. Neutral entropy
5. A computer-based information system that increase the efficiency and productivity of
managers and office workers through document and message processing is known as
a. Decision support system
b. Management information system
c. Office automation system
d. Transaction processing system
6. Which is a multiuser operating system
a. MS DOS
b. Windows NT
c. VMS
d. None
7. More information and knowledge is an advantage of this decision-making.
a. Individual
b. Strategic
c. Operational
d. Group
8. ISDN stands for
a. International service digital network
b. International service data network
c. Integrated service digital network
d. Integrated service data network
9. MYCIN is a popular expert system used for
a. Financial planning
b. Mineral exploration
c. Mass spectrography
d. Medical diagnosis
10. This refers to the flow of information among people on the same or similar organizational
level.
a. Diagonal
b. Upward
c. Horizontal
d. Downward
Part Two:
1. What are ‘Empirical systems’?
2. Write a note on ‘EPAB’.
3. Differentiate between interpreter and compiler.
4. What is ‘Virtual Reality’?
1. Suggest the different
Decision Support System (DSS) which the management of the UFDL may
use for strategic management of the business.
use for strategic management of the business.
2. Suggest the external sources of information for the top management to support their decision making, justifying its position in an MIS.
1. Do you agree with the
argument made by the business leaders in this case in support of the
competitive advantage that IT can provide to a business? Why or why not?
competitive advantage that IT can provide to a business? Why or why not?
2. What are several ways that IT could provide a competitive advantage to a business? Use some of
the companies mentioned in this case as examples. Visit their websites to gather more
information to help you answer.
1. Shells Company has adopted a new management information system (MIS) in its Chennai
branch. Though the MIS promised rich benefits, Shells’ employees were quite apprehensive
about the new change and resisted this recent move of the company. Can you suggest some
measures or techniques for overcoming resistance to change at Shells?
2. A key element in both planning and controlling is information. What are the main attributes
that information must possess in order to be useful to managers? And is the nature of the
information required by managers at different levels similar or does it varies along with the
hierarchy?
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Strategic Management
Multiple choices:
1. These are the plans formulated to achieve strategic goals.
a. Tactical plans
b. Strategic plans
c. Operational plans
d. Standing plans
2. This strategy facilities specialization by establishing a position of overall cost leadership,
differentiation, or both, but only within a particular segment, in an entire market.
a. Specific
b. Focus
c. Directive
d. Differentiation
3. This plan basically defines the actions of major departments and other sub-units that are required
in the execution of a strategic plan.
a. Tactical plan
b. Operational plan
c. Single-use plan
d. Long-term plan
4. This is a distinctive business or collection of related business, that can be managed relatively
independent of other businesses within the organization
a. Functional unit
b. Department unit
c. Organizational unit
d. Strategic business unit
5. These strategic plans of the organization have a time-frame exceeding five years.
a. Short-terms plans
b. Single-use plans
c. Long-term plans
d. Intermediate plans
6. Operational plans are mainly oriented towards issues that usually have a time horizon of
a. About five years
b. 3 to 5 years
c. 1 to 2 years
d. One year or less
7. These refer to the determination of the purpose and the basic long-term objectives of an
enterprise, and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve
these aims.
a. Strategies
b. Plans
c. Policies
d. Procedures
8. These strategies provide guidelines for organizational growth
a. Organizational
b. Finance
c. Marketing
d. Growth
9. There are the three major kinds of standing plans: policies, rules, and
a. Projects
b. Programs
c. Procedures
d. Standards
10. This step in the planning process involves putting the plan into action.
a. Implementation
b. Selection
c. Evaluation
d. Review
1. These are the plans formulated to achieve strategic goals.
a. Tactical plans
b. Strategic plans
c. Operational plans
d. Standing plans
2. This strategy facilities specialization by establishing a position of overall cost leadership,
differentiation, or both, but only within a particular segment, in an entire market.
a. Specific
b. Focus
c. Directive
d. Differentiation
3. This plan basically defines the actions of major departments and other sub-units that are required
in the execution of a strategic plan.
a. Tactical plan
b. Operational plan
c. Single-use plan
d. Long-term plan
4. This is a distinctive business or collection of related business, that can be managed relatively
independent of other businesses within the organization
a. Functional unit
b. Department unit
c. Organizational unit
d. Strategic business unit
5. These strategic plans of the organization have a time-frame exceeding five years.
a. Short-terms plans
b. Single-use plans
c. Long-term plans
d. Intermediate plans
6. Operational plans are mainly oriented towards issues that usually have a time horizon of
a. About five years
b. 3 to 5 years
c. 1 to 2 years
d. One year or less
7. These refer to the determination of the purpose and the basic long-term objectives of an
enterprise, and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve
these aims.
a. Strategies
b. Plans
c. Policies
d. Procedures
8. These strategies provide guidelines for organizational growth
a. Organizational
b. Finance
c. Marketing
d. Growth
9. There are the three major kinds of standing plans: policies, rules, and
a. Projects
b. Programs
c. Procedures
d. Standards
10. This step in the planning process involves putting the plan into action.
a. Implementation
b. Selection
c. Evaluation
d. Review
Part Two:
1. Explain the ‘Adaptive mode’ of strategic management.
2. What is ‘Behavioral theory’?
3. Write about ‘Delphi technique’ of forecasting.
4. What are the basic steps one should follow for the ‘Value chain analysis’?
1. If you were appointed as
a CEO of AEL, Would you like to go for a separate design division?
2. Critically evaluate the future plans of AEL.
3. Do you think the target set by AEL was realistic? Comment.
4. Comment on the management strategies adopted by AEL.
2. Critically evaluate the future plans of AEL.
3. Do you think the target set by AEL was realistic? Comment.
4. Comment on the management strategies adopted by AEL.
1. As Kartik, what would
have been your strategies to deal with the defaulters?
2. What steps should Kartik adopt before expansion and diversification? Would it be a wise decision
to diversify at this stage?
2. What steps should Kartik adopt before expansion and diversification? Would it be a wise decision
to diversify at this stage?
1. Strategic planning
involves both, the development of organizational objectives and the
laying down of specifications about how they will be accomplished. In this context,
outline the major steps in the strategic planning process.
laying down of specifications about how they will be accomplished. In this context,
outline the major steps in the strategic planning process.
2. Implementing strategies effectively is of great importance. The success of a strategy
depends on how effectively it is implemented. Elucidate.
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Management of a Sales Force
Multiple Choices:
1. ____________ is the stage in which the salesperson must discover, clarify and understand the
buyer’s needs.
a. Customer Research
b. Approach
c. Need Assessment
d. Planning
2. This outcome equates to how much information was absorbed and usually involves in giving the
trainee some type of test.
a. Reactions
b. Leaving
c. Behavior
d. Results
3. A salesperson’s ______________ is calculated by dividing the number of orders received by the
number of calls made (O/C).
a. Batting Average
b. Call Rate
c. Size of Orders
d. Direct Selling Expense
4. Such costs are incurred in connection with a single unit of sales operations.
a. Direct Costs
b. Indirect Costs
c. Overhead Costs
d. Fixed Costs
5. These are the activities that people must perform in orders to carry out the strategy.
a. Objectives
b. Strategies
c. Tactics
d. Goals
6. The highest executives in sales management is most often called:
a. Vice President of Sales
b. Branch Manager
c. Team Leader
d. District Sales Manager
7. A ____________ is someone with knowledge, experience, rank, or power that provides personal
counseling & career guidance for younger employees.
a. Mentor
b. Leader
c. Supervisor
d. Peer
8. The most widely used method of expense control in which the company reimburses sales
representatives for all legitimate business & travel costs they incur while on company business is
known as:
a. Clarity
b. Payment Plans
c. Limited Payment Plans
d. Unlimited Payment Plans
9. It is a direct monetary reward paid for performing certain duties over a period of time.
a. Salary
b. Incentives
c. Bonus
d. Pension
10. This is a performance goal assigned to a marketing unit for a specific period of time.
a. Salary Plus Bonus
b. Salary plus Commission
c. Salary Plus Commission & Bonus
d. Sales Quota
1. ____________ is the stage in which the salesperson must discover, clarify and understand the
buyer’s needs.
a. Customer Research
b. Approach
c. Need Assessment
d. Planning
2. This outcome equates to how much information was absorbed and usually involves in giving the
trainee some type of test.
a. Reactions
b. Leaving
c. Behavior
d. Results
3. A salesperson’s ______________ is calculated by dividing the number of orders received by the
number of calls made (O/C).
a. Batting Average
b. Call Rate
c. Size of Orders
d. Direct Selling Expense
4. Such costs are incurred in connection with a single unit of sales operations.
a. Direct Costs
b. Indirect Costs
c. Overhead Costs
d. Fixed Costs
5. These are the activities that people must perform in orders to carry out the strategy.
a. Objectives
b. Strategies
c. Tactics
d. Goals
6. The highest executives in sales management is most often called:
a. Vice President of Sales
b. Branch Manager
c. Team Leader
d. District Sales Manager
7. A ____________ is someone with knowledge, experience, rank, or power that provides personal
counseling & career guidance for younger employees.
a. Mentor
b. Leader
c. Supervisor
d. Peer
8. The most widely used method of expense control in which the company reimburses sales
representatives for all legitimate business & travel costs they incur while on company business is
known as:
a. Clarity
b. Payment Plans
c. Limited Payment Plans
d. Unlimited Payment Plans
9. It is a direct monetary reward paid for performing certain duties over a period of time.
a. Salary
b. Incentives
c. Bonus
d. Pension
10. This is a performance goal assigned to a marketing unit for a specific period of time.
a. Salary Plus Bonus
b. Salary plus Commission
c. Salary Plus Commission & Bonus
d. Sales Quota
Part Two:
1. Write a short note on ‘Strategic Account Management’.
2. Why there is a need of a detailed data in sales?
3. Briefly explain the nature & benefits of Territories.
4. What is Market Specialization?
1. What should Clyde Brion
do to remedy the imbalanced sales performance of Louise Shannon and
Henry Sadowski?
Henry Sadowski?
1. What type of training
program should Mickie Parsons recommend to Keat Markley? What’s your
reasoning for your recommendation?
1. ‘Sales Forecasting is a very difficult task’ Comment on the statement and also suggest some
guidelines for the manager that can enhance the accuracy of the states forecast.
reasoning for your recommendation?
1. ‘Sales Forecasting is a very difficult task’ Comment on the statement and also suggest some
guidelines for the manager that can enhance the accuracy of the states forecast.
2. Certain Leadership & Supervisory problems are commonly encountered when managing sales
people. State those problems which are encountered in leadership.
3. What is Training Assessment? What are the Training Program objectives?
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Sales and Distribution Management
Multiple Choices:
1. Out of the following which gap arise when the sales force does not have the required knowledge,
skills or capabilities to become successful on the Job.
a. Knowledge gap
b. Capability gap
c. Methods gap
d. Training gap
2. This method is used by the trainers to present more information in a short time to a large number
of participants.
a. Lecture
b. Demonstration
c. Group discussion
d. None of the above
3. It improves on traditional computer based training by making the information available to the
salesperson immediately and in a personalized manner.
a. Distance Learning
b. Interactive Multimedia Training
c. Mentoring
d. Electronic Performance Support System
4. These are preprogrammed computer packages, and are based on reality:
a. Role Playing
b. Case Studies
c. Simulation Games
d. Job Rotation
5. The responsibility which include dealing with stakeholders with fairness impartiality and equality
is known as:
a. Ethical Responsibilities
b. Legal Responsibilities
c. Economic Responsibilities
d. Voluntary Responsibilities
6. They are the shopkeepers who set up shops in the market place to cater to the needs of hundreds
of consumers.
a. Distributors
b. Wholesalers
c. Agents
d. Retailers
7. This strategy is to make sure that the product is made available in as many outlets as possible so
that anywhere the consumer go, he or she should be able to get the product of his choice.
a. Exclusive Distribution
b. Selective Distribution
c. Intensive Distribution
d. Distribution Channel
8. This is the stage of the birth of multiple retail formats to please the customer.
a. Stage of Infancy (Child hood)
b. Meeting Customer Expectations (Youth)
c. Shift in the power equation (Adulthood)
d. Consolidation (Maturity)
9. It is the identity that the store develops for itself in terms of what it has to offer the customers.
a. Positioning Strategy
b. Product Differentiation Strategy
c. Operational Strategy
d. Targeting
10. It is the most convenient size of the product that the customer can buy at a time.
a. Lot Size
b. Waiting Time
c. Choice to the consumer
d. Place Utility
1. Out of the following which gap arise when the sales force does not have the required knowledge,
skills or capabilities to become successful on the Job.
a. Knowledge gap
b. Capability gap
c. Methods gap
d. Training gap
2. This method is used by the trainers to present more information in a short time to a large number
of participants.
a. Lecture
b. Demonstration
c. Group discussion
d. None of the above
3. It improves on traditional computer based training by making the information available to the
salesperson immediately and in a personalized manner.
a. Distance Learning
b. Interactive Multimedia Training
c. Mentoring
d. Electronic Performance Support System
4. These are preprogrammed computer packages, and are based on reality:
a. Role Playing
b. Case Studies
c. Simulation Games
d. Job Rotation
5. The responsibility which include dealing with stakeholders with fairness impartiality and equality
is known as:
a. Ethical Responsibilities
b. Legal Responsibilities
c. Economic Responsibilities
d. Voluntary Responsibilities
6. They are the shopkeepers who set up shops in the market place to cater to the needs of hundreds
of consumers.
a. Distributors
b. Wholesalers
c. Agents
d. Retailers
7. This strategy is to make sure that the product is made available in as many outlets as possible so
that anywhere the consumer go, he or she should be able to get the product of his choice.
a. Exclusive Distribution
b. Selective Distribution
c. Intensive Distribution
d. Distribution Channel
8. This is the stage of the birth of multiple retail formats to please the customer.
a. Stage of Infancy (Child hood)
b. Meeting Customer Expectations (Youth)
c. Shift in the power equation (Adulthood)
d. Consolidation (Maturity)
9. It is the identity that the store develops for itself in terms of what it has to offer the customers.
a. Positioning Strategy
b. Product Differentiation Strategy
c. Operational Strategy
d. Targeting
10. It is the most convenient size of the product that the customer can buy at a time.
a. Lot Size
b. Waiting Time
c. Choice to the consumer
d. Place Utility
Part Two:
1. What is Channel Conflict?
2. What is an Information System? What is the purpose of Information Systems?
3. State the different categories of Inventory.
4. What is Electronic Data Interchange?
1. What improvements do you
suggest in the staffing process followed by the company?
2. Was Sunil Kumar right in getting market surveys done by the new salesperson?
2. Was Sunil Kumar right in getting market surveys done by the new salesperson?
1. How can you help Snow
White become less dependent on the selling agents and plan its sales and
profitability better? How can they plan their customer service efforts?
1. Explain in detail the Role of Retailers.
2. How does the availability of the Internet impact on International sales?
3. What are the basic concepts of Sales Organization? Explain any one of those concepts.
profitability better? How can they plan their customer service efforts?
1. Explain in detail the Role of Retailers.
2. How does the availability of the Internet impact on International sales?
3. What are the basic concepts of Sales Organization? Explain any one of those concepts.
WE PROVIDE CASE STUDY ANSWERS, ASSIGNMENT SOLUTIONS, PROJECT REPORTS AND THESIS
ARAVIND - 09901366442 – 09902787224
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