Wednesday 5 August 2015

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Supply Chain Management
                                        
Multiple Choices:
1. When demand is steady, the cycle inventory for a given lot size (Q) is given by:
a. Q/4
b. Q/8
c. Q/6
d. Q/2
2. There are two firms ‘x’ and ‘y’ located on a line of distance demand(0-1) at ‘a’ and ‘b’
respectively, the customers are uniformly located on the line, on keeping the fact of splitting of
market, the demand of firm ‘x’ will be given by:
a. (a+b)/2
b. a+(1-b-a)/2
c. (1+b-a)/2
d. a+(a-b)/2
3. Push process in supply chain analysis is also called:
a. Speculative process
b. Manufacturing process
c. Supplying process
d. Demand process
4. If the Throughput be ‘d’ and the flow time be ‘t’ then the Inventory ‘I’ is given by:
a. I *d=t
b. I=t+d
c. d=I*t
d. I =d*t
5. Forecasting method is:
a. Time series
b. causal
c. Qualitative
d. All the above

6. Component of order cost include:
a. Handling cost
b. Occupancy cost
c. Receiving costs
d. Miscellaneous costs
7. How many distinct types of MRO inventory are there?
a. One
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two
8. Supply chain driver is:
a. Inventory
b. Return ability
c. Fulfillment
d. All of above
9. SRM stands for:
a. Strategic Relationship Management
b. Supply Return ability Management
c. Supplier Relationship Management
d. None of the above
10. Discount factor equals to, where k is the rate of return.
a. 1/1+k
b. 2/1+k
c. 1/1-k
d. 1/2+k

Part Two:
1. Explain “zone of strategic fit”.
2. Explain “scope of strategic fit”.
3. What do you understand by “Stimulation Forecasting Method”?
4. Write a note on “Obsolescence (or spoilage) cost”.
5. Define “Square Law” in safety inventory of supply chain management.
6. What does the word “postponement” signifies in supply chain?
7. What do you understand by the term “tailored sourcing”?
8. Explain the term “Outsourcing”.
9. Write a note on “threshold contracts” for increasing agent efforts.
1. How much safety inventory of each variant must Orion keep without component commonality?
What are the annual holding costs?
2. How much safety inventory must be kept in component form if Orion uses common components
for all variants? What is the annual holding cost? What is the increase in component cost using
commonality? Is commonality justified across all variants?
3. At what cost of commonality will complete commonality be justified.
4. At what cost of commonality will commonality across the low-volume variants be justified.
1. How many units of each type of player should the electronics manufacturer order if there are no
capacity constraints?
2. How many times of each type of player should the electronics manufacturer order if the available
is 140,000? What is the expected profit?

1. Consider two products with the same margin carried by a retail store. Any leftover units of one
product are worthless. Leftover units of the other product can be sold to outlet stores. Which
product should have a higher level of availability? Why?

2. McMaster-Carr sells maintenance, repair, and operations equipment from five warehouses in the
United States. W.W. Grainger sells products from more than 350 retail locations, supported by
several warehouses. In both cases, customers place orders using the Web or on the phone. Discuss
the pros and cons of the two strategies.



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Telecom Technologies

Multiple Choices:
1. Which technology is among the early starter in providing VoWiFi solutions for enterprises with
wireless networks?
a. Symbol Technologies
b. Vocera Technologies
c. Spectra link Technologies
d. None of the above
2. In wireless networks ___________ refers to the measure of the performance for a system
reflecting its transmission quality & service availability.
a. Internet speeds
b. Quality of Service (QOS)
c. Interoperability
d. Line of Sight
3. A single IP-based core network handling the full range of telecom services.
a. Power line Communication (PLC)
b. VOIP
c. OFCOM
d. Next Generation Networks
4. Which country has the strong competitive broadband market with a penetration of 16%?
a. India
b. USA
c. Japan
d. China
5. Out of the following which project aims to substantially replace all of Bt’s existing network
platform (PSTDN, ISDN etc) with a single unified IP platform.
a. ADSL2
b. 21CN
c. ATM
d. SHDS

6. Which generation of mobile telephony will serve both voice & data applications?
a. 1G
b. 2G
c. 3G
d. 4G
7. This is a high bandwidth wireless networking service that operates in the frequency spectrum of
28-31 GHz range.
a. MMDS
b. LMDS
c. BW
d. None
8. Which management establishes the right architecture to deliver more products, better leveraging
development & deployment expenditures?
a. Product Portfolio Management
b. Partner Management
c. Platform Management
d. None of the above
9. ___________ Frequencies allow multiple service providers to utilize the same section of the
spectrum & compete with each other for customers.
a. Licensed
b. Unlicensed
c. Both
d. None of the above
10. LAS-CDMA stands for ____________________.

Part Two:
1. What is Backhauling solution?
2. What is Broadband?
3. What is WiMAX?
4. What is THIPON?
5. What is a VOWiFi?
1. Comment on the strategy which is adopted by the FCC “broadband wire line Internet access
services” is fruitful or not?
1. Explain the concept of ATDI.
2. What are the measures which are behind the success of the ATDI methodology?
3. What is GSM/3G technology?
4. Write down the steps which are to be known in auto planning.

1. WiFi/mobile roaming and VoWiFi may play an important role for fixed-mobile convergence.
Explain.
2. Does a ‘light touch’ regulation regime make sense within the NGN environment? What benefits
& risks do you see with a ‘light-touch’?


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Strategic Management
Multiple choices:
1. These are the plans formulated to achieve strategic goals.
a. Tactical plans
b. Strategic plans
c. Operational plans
d. Standing plans
2. This strategy facilities specialization by establishing a position of overall cost leadership,
differentiation, or both, but only within a particular segment, in an entire market.
a. Specific
b. Focus
c. Directive
d. Differentiation
3. This plan basically defines the actions of major departments and other sub-units that are required
in the execution of a strategic plan.
a. Tactical plan
b. Operational plan
c. Single-use plan
d. Long-term plan
4. This is a distinctive business or collection of related business, that can be managed relatively
independent of other businesses within the organization
a. Functional unit
b. Department unit
c. Organizational unit
d. Strategic business unit
5. These strategic plans of the organization have a time-frame exceeding five years.
a. Short-terms plans
b. Single-use plans
c. Long-term plans
d. Intermediate plans

6. Operational plans are mainly oriented towards issues that usually have a time horizon of
a. About five years
b. 3 to 5 years
c. 1 to 2 years
d. One year or less
7. These refer to the determination of the purpose and the basic long-term objectives of an
enterprise, and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve
these aims.
a. Strategies
b. Plans
c. Policies
d. Procedures
8. These strategies provide guidelines for organizational growth
a. Organizational
b. Finance
c. Marketing
d. Growth
9. There are the three major kinds of standing plans: policies, rules, and
a. Projects
b. Programs
c. Procedures
d. Standards
10. This step in the planning process involves putting the plan into action.
a. Implementation
b. Selection
c. Evaluation
d. Review

Part Two:
1. Explain the ‘Adaptive mode’ of strategic management.
2. What is ‘Behavioral theory’?
3. Write about ‘Delphi technique’ of forecasting.
4. What are the basic steps one should follow for the ‘Value chain analysis’?

1. If you were appointed as a CEO of AEL, Would you like to go for a separate design division?
2. Critically evaluate the future plans of AEL.
3. Do you think the target set by AEL was realistic? Comment.
4. Comment on the management strategies adopted by AEL.

1. As Kartik, what would have been your strategies to deal with the defaulters?

2. What steps should Kartik adopt before expansion and diversification? Would it be a wise decision
to diversify at this stage?

1. Strategic planning involves both, the development of organizational objectives and the
laying down of specifications about how they will be accomplished. In this context,
outline the major steps in the strategic planning process.

2. Implementing strategies effectively is of great importance. The success of a strategy
depends on how effectively it is implemented. Elucidate.


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Strategic Cost Management 

Multiple Choices: 
1. A set of policies, procedures and approaches that helps a firm attain and retain success for long is termed as- 
a) Benchmarking 
b) Life cycle costing 
c) Target costing 
d) Strategy 

2. A cost management tool that bring in its focus the activities performed to produced a product is called- 
a) Target costing 
b) Life cycle costing 
c) ABC 
d) Benchmarking 

3. Cost incurred to the past that are not relevant to present decisions are- 
a) Fixed cost 
b) Sunk cost 
c) Opportunity cost 
d) Indirect costs 
………………..10. Which stage of product life cycle is characterized by little competition and slowly increasing sales? 
a) Introduction 
b) Growth 
c) Maturity 
d) Decline 

Part Two: 
1. List the characteristics of Balance score card. 
2. What are the methods of Alternative costing? 
3. Differentiate between fixed cost and variable cost. 
4. Discuss the dissimilarities between job order costing & process costing systems. 



Caselet 1 

1. Discuss why Vikram has an ethical responsibility to take some action against the MNC. 

2. Which of the alternative courses would be the most appropriate in the given situation? 

Caselet 2 

Questions: 
1. Prepare an organizational structure of brilliant University. 

2. List the name of the departments having under the university. 


1. What is “Cost management”? Explain the primary objectives of cost management? 

2. Define “Target costing”; discuss the principles of target costing. 


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Statistical Quality Control

Multiple choices:
1. If in a hall there are 18 persons then how many handshakes are possible?
a. 18*18
b. 18*17/2
c. 18*17
d. None of the above
2. If the number of trials be ‘n’ and the probability of occurrence be ‘p’ then the standard deviation
with respect to np, is given by:
a. (np)1/2
b. (np(1-p))1/2
c. (np)1/4
d. (np(1-p))1/4
3. For a biased coin the probability of occurrence of head is 0.4 ,if the coin is tossed twice then the
probability of occurrence of at least one head will be:
a. 0.76
b. 0.48
c. 0.64
d. 0.16
4. Factorial of 5 equals:
a. 60
b. 120
c. 24
d. 5
5. Combinatory of (4,2) equals:
a. 12
b. 8
c. 6
d. None of the above

6. ‘Economic Control of Quality of Manufactured Product’, a book by Walter A Shewhart in:
a. 1931
b. 1941
c. 1930
d. 1956
7. Quality is judged by…………
a. Retailer
b. Government
c. Customer
d. Hole seller
8. A run chart is a special chart of…………
a. Pie chart
b. Line chart
c. R chart
d. C chart
9. Universes may differ :
a. In average
b. In above average
c. At higher level
d. All of the above
10. ASQC and ANSI began in the year:
a. 1956
b. 1976
c. 1978
d. 1960

Part Two:
1. Differentiate between ‘Defect’ and ‘Defective’.
2. Explain the need of ‘short method’.
3. What does ‘Tchebycheff’s inequality theorem’ say?
4. Explain the usability of ‘stochastic limit’.
5. Write a note on ‘Cause and Effect’ diagram.
1. What marketing strategy should RSL adopt to remain competitive in the international market?
2. Has the company taken the right decision to forward integrate and enter into the highly volatile
garment market?
1. How could have the SQC approach, been useful in solving the immediate problems of Japan?
2. If you were among one of the management members, what would have been your first insight.

1. A sample of 30 is to be selected from a lot of 200 articles. How many different samples are
possible?
2. In Dodge’s CSP-1, it is desired to apply sampling inspection to 1 piece out of every 15 and to
maintain an AOQL of 2%. What should be the value of i?


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Six Sigma Green Belt

Multiple Choices:
1. The primary purpose of a control chart is to:
a. Set Specifications and tolerances
b. Compare operations.
c. Determine the stability of a process.
d. Accept or reject a lot of material
2. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of the following
times?
a. Before the chart is first started
b. After the first ten points are plotted
c. When the plotted points hug the centerline
d. After the process is shown to be in control
3. Precision is best described as:
a. A comparison to a known standard
b. The achievement of expected outgoing quality
c. The repeated consistency of results
d. The difference between an average measurement and the actual value
4. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain consistent results repeatedly when measuring
the same set of parts and using the same measuring equipment is the definition of:
a. Repeatability
b. Precision
c. Reproducibility
d. Accuracy
5. Which of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of statistical control?
a. Most of the product out by the process is in specification.
b. All subgroup averages and rang are within control limits.
c. All variation has been completely removed
d. Previously optimal process settings are used.

6. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to the sum of deviations from the mean
squared divided by the sample size?
a. Range
b. Standard deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
7. An X and R chart is used to:
a. Indicate process variation
b. Specify design Limits
c. Interpret costs
d. Identify customer expectations
8. Which of the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting and understanding the process
of capability?
a. A flowchart
b. A histogram
c. An affinity diagram
d. An Ishikawa diagram
9. The type of chart that presents the value of items in descending order is a:
a. Histogram
b. Pareto chart
c. U chart
d. Cusum chart
10. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?
a. Temperature in degrees
b. Attendance at meetings
c. Weight in pounds
d. Length in metric units
11. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control chart?
a. P chart
b. U chart
c. Np chart
d. C chart
12. A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which of the following?
a. Determining the flow of a process
b. Detecting shifts in a process
c. Developing theories based on symptoms
d. Arranging theories by defect count
13. Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard deviation
d. Range

14. Which of the following type of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?
a. Histogram
b. Frequency distributions
c. Pareto chart
d. Process observations
15. Out of the following which technique is most useful in narrowing issues and limiting discussion?
a. Brainstorming
b. Quality function deployment
c. Cause and effect analysis
d. Mutilating
16. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or systematic is called:
a. Bias
b. Sensitivity
c. Random
d. Shift
17. For a normal distribution, two standard deviation on each side of the mean would include what
percentage of the total population:
a. 47%
b. 68%
c. 95%
d. 99%
18. If a distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what percentage of data will be less than 30?
a. 59.18%
b. 40.82%
c. 9.18%
d. 1.33%
19. A company is receiving an unusually high number of returns from various customers. The first step in
investigating the problem would be to
a. Check the inspection records
b. Establish the correlation of the returns to shipments
c. Brainstorm the potential causes
d. Classify the returns by type and degree of serious
20. Which of the following is the best definition of a flow chart?
a. A diagram used to structure ideas into useful categories
b. An illustration used to analyze variation in a process
c. A picture used to separate steps of a process in sequential order
d. An analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a desired change
21. Which of the following activities would NOT contribute to the effective functioning of a team?
a. Eliminating unnecessary activities
b. Development team performance measures
c. Defining process in detail
d. Monitoring each member’s performance

22. What is the standard deviation of the population-10, 4, 16, 12, and 8?
a. 4.00
b. 4.47
c. 16.00
d. 20.00
23. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the symptoms of
a problem?
a. Check sheet
b. Flow diagram
c. Force-field analysis
d. Activity network diagram
24. Which of the following measures is a sufficient statistic for the parameter u?
a. Median
b. Mid-range
c. Mean
d. Mode
25. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most commonly analyzed in:
a. SPC charts
b. Multi-vari charts
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Run charts
26. Which of the following describes the deming method for continuous improvement?
a. Cost of quality analysis
b. Process map
c. Tree Diagram
d. Plan-do-check-act cycle
27. In analysis of variance, which of the following distribution is the basis for determining whether the
variance estimates are all from the same population?
a. Chi square
b. Students
c. Normal
d. F
28. Which of the following statement best describes the set of value of a random variable?
a. It is finite.
b. It is an interval
c. It can be discrete or continuous.
d. It can be tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.
29. Which of the following is the best description of randomization?
a. A technique used to increase the precision of an experiment
b. A means of assuring representative sampling
c. The repetition of an observation or measurement
d. The relationship between two or more variables

30. When the order of items is not important, which of the following method is used to determine the
number of sets and subsets of items?
a. Combination
b. Permutation
c. Factorization
d. Simulation
31. Scatter diagrams are best described as:
a. Histograms.
b. Correlation analysis.
c. Pareto analysis.
d. Ishikawa diagrams.
32. A __________ is created to determine customers of a specific process.
a. Pareto chart
b. Flow diagram
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Scatter diagram
33. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line to indicate when components or raw
materials need to be replenished. This practice is an example of:
a. Kanban
b. Poka-yake
c. Checkpoints
d. Hoshin
34. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycle time reduction and concurrent operations?
a. A timeline
b. A Pareto diagram
c. An X and R chart
d. A PERT chart
35. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of the following?
a. Counted values measured values
b. Counted values visual features
c. Measured values counted values
d. Visual features counted values
36. All of the following are common ways for people to react to conflict except:
a. Competing
b. Collaborating
c. Avoiding
d. Sabotaging
37. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction by taking samples based on the
categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and demographic. This technique is known as
a. Random sampling
b. Data collection
c. Stratification
d. Customer classification

38. Which of the following actions is Not used to reduce process cycle time?
a. Analyzing current processes
b. Reducing queue times
c. Setting priorities
d. Implementing activity-based costing
39. A company’s accounts payable department is trying to reduce the time between receipt and
payment of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the following tool is the next
to be used by them?
a. Fishbone diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Box and whisker plat
d. Histogram
40. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of customer in relation to the Human
Resource department?
a. Intermediate
b. Hidden
c. External
d. Internal


1. Describe how QFD fits into the overall DFSS process.
2. What is interrelationship Digraph? Explain it with example.
3. Find the area under the standard normal curve between +1.50 standard deviations and +2.50
standard deviations.
4. Define terms related to One-Way ANOVA and interpret their results & data plots.
5. Define & describe the use of Rational Sub grouping.

1. Suppose you are cooking steak for 100 people, & the current approval rating is 75% acceptable.
You want to know the affect of different methods and approaches to see how the overall approval
or “yield” is affected. By using the Full Factorial method explain how the overall approval or
“yield” is affected.

2. Interpret Control Charts? Distinguish between common & special causes using rules for
determining stastical control.


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Operations Research
Part One:
1. In case of (<=) inequality, to convert the inequality to an equation, we used to add a slack
variable to the left hand side of the constraint, this slake variable should be:
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. May be positive or negative
d. Zero
2. In a set of m Χ n equations (m<n) the maximum number of corner points is given by…………
3. According to penalty rule for artificial variables, the objective coefficient of the artificial variable
represents an appropriate penalty, positive or negative depending on the problem, but the
necessary condition required to hold this is, the value should be:
a. ∞
b. 0
c. 1
d. None of the above
4. The cases of the Simplex method in which the value of the variables may increased indefinitely
without change in the constraints is:
a. Degeneracy
b. Alternative optima
c. Unbounded solutions
d. Nonexisting solutions
5. An arc in network model is said to be ‘Directed’ if it allows positive flow in one direction and
a. Negative flow in negative direction
b. Zero flow in negative direction
c. Negative flow in perpendicular direction
d. None of the above
6. PERT stands for……………………………………………………………………………………..
7. In preemptive method for goal programming , the optimum value of a higher priority goal is
never degraded by a lower priority goal.(T/F)
8. The column dropping rule does not guarantee the non degradation of higher priority goals.(T/F)
9. The additive algorithm developed by E Balas for solving ILP problems was based on pure binary
variables.(T/F)
10. According to inventory model for commodity possession for smooth business operation, Holding
cost represents:
a. Price per unit of an inventory item.
b. The fixed charge incurred when an order is placed regardless of its size.
c. The cost of maintaining inventory in stock.
d. None of the above

Part Two:

1. What do you understand by ‘Degeneracy’ found in using simplex method?
2. What do know about ‘The Balancing of Transportation Model’? If unbalanced then remedy.
3. Explain ‘Vogel Approximation Model (VAM)’.
4. Explain ‘Dijkstra’s Algorithm’ for routing.

1. The stock of WalMark Stores, Inc., trades on the New York Stock Exchange under the symbol
WMS. Historically, the price of WMS goes up with the increase in the Dow average 60% of the
time and goes down with the DOW 25% of the time. There is also a 5% chance that WMS will go
up when the Dow goes and 10% that it will go down when the Dow goes up.
a) Determine the probability that WMS will go up regardless of the Dow.

b) Find the probability that probability that WMS goes up given that the Dow is up?

c) What is the probability WMS goes down given that Dow is down?

2. Prove that if the probability P {A/B} = P {A}, then A and B must be independent.

3. Tasco Oil owns a pipeline booster unit that that operates continuously. The time between
breakdowns for each booster is exponential with a mean of 20 hours. The repair time is
exponential with mean 3 hours. In a particular station, two repairpersons attend 10 boosters. The
hourly wage for each repairperson is $18. Pipeline losses are estimated to be $30 per broken
booster per hour. Tasco is studying the possibility of hiring an additional repairperson.

a) Will there be any cost savings in hiring a third repairperson?

b) What is the schedule loss in dollars per breakdown when the number of repairpersons on duty
is two? Three?

4. Cars arrive at a one-bay car wash facility the interarrival time is exponential, with a mean of 10
minutes. Arriving cars line up in a single lane can accommodate at most five waiting cars. If the
lane is full, newly arriving cars will go elsewhere. It takes between 10 and 15 minutes, uniformly
distributed, to wash a car. Simulate the system for 960 minutes, and estimate the time a car spends
in the facility?
1. Define Transportation Model and its variant in brief.
2. Explain in detail Game Theory. Support you answer examples.


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Advertising Media Planning

Multiple Choices:
1. Advertising done once a month is calleda.
Continuity
b. Flighting
c. Pulsing
d. All of the above
2. Classification of geographic areas includea.
Regions
b. TV  market  delineation  such  as  DMA’S
c. Age
d. Both a & b
3. The data set contains the boundaries for metropolitan & micropolitan statistical areas in united
states is known asa.
Designated market areas
b. Metropolitan & micropolitan statistical areas
c. Core-based statistical areas
d. None of these
4. Which of the following is the general media planning sites:-
a. Advertising media internet center
b. Media post
c. Both a & b
d. Media mark research & intelligence
5. Arrange the following into classic Engel/kollat model of the buying process.
a. Search for alternatives to solve the problem
b. Alternative evaluation
c. Post purchasing evaluation
Examination Paper of Media Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
d. Problem recognition
a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. ii, I, iv, iii
c. iv, I, ii, iii
d. iii, iv, ii, i
6. Which of the following are the top five perennial questions that media research cannot answer?
a. How much is enough
b. Which medium is most effective
c. Which is better: flighting or continuity
d. All of the above
7. DMA stands for
8. GRPs stands for
9. What is the full form of BDIa.
Broad development index
b. Brand development index
c. Brand display index
d. Balanced dynamic index
10. Which of the following are the elements of media strategy?
a. Media target
b. Creative strategy
c. Reach & frequency
d. All of the above

Part Two:
1. What are the principles for selecting media vehicles?
2. What are the important reasons for using a media mix?
3. List the strategies used by media planner to create the awareness.
4. Write short note on GRPs?

1. What  do  you  see  as  the  company’s  real  communication  problem?
2. What would you suggest to improve communication in the company?
1. On the basis of above case explain how to advertise and market your Product through SMS?
2. Give the detailed advantages of advertising & marketing the products through Short Messaging
Services (SMS).

1. Define Media planning. Explain the objective of marketing in media planning?
2. What is the creative media strategy? List the guidelines for a creative media strategy

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Media and Advertising Management

Multiple Choices:
1. Which of the following is not the spectrum of advertising?
a. Sales organization
b. Communication with consumer
c. Distribution channel
d. Advertising for media
2. AIDA stands for__________
3. Which of the following is the indirect role of advertising?
a. Lowering of price
b. Advertising & competition
c. Guide to perspective buyer
d. Both a & b
4. Lack of clarity in setting advertising objectives may arise due to thea.
Problem in stating objectives in quantifiable terms
b. Inability in identifying the largest audience
c. Inadequate information
d. All of the above
5. Which of the following is not the criticism of advertising?
a. Advertising creates insecurity
b. Barriers to entry
c. Product proliferation
d. Inefficient manufacturer stay in business
6. A part of amount per unit of the item sold is assigned as the advertising appropriation is known
asa.
Percentage of sales
b. Unit of sales
Examination Paper of Media Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 7
c. Competitive parity
d. Return on investment method
7. POP stands for __________
8. Which of the following is the strategy of segmentationa.
Strategy of concentration
b. Strategy of differentiation
c. Both a & b
d. None
9. Various types of advertising material which can be used in shops and stores to draw the
attention of the prospects such as dispensers, hanging signs, danglers and streamer is known asa.
Outdoor promotional media
b. Point of purchase material
c. Direct announcement
d. Advertising specialties and gifts
10. What are the common themes, commonly used by a copywriter in creating “Industrial
advertisement”.
a. Old and with long experience
b. Research and development
c. Technical breakthrough
d. All of the above

Part Two:

1. State the role of Advertising.
2. What are the differences between industrial & consumer advertising?
3. Explain the” Roger’s  innovation  model” of advertising?
4. Describe the situation in which advertising may be acquired.
1. DTH remains the primary digital pay-TV platform in India. Comment?
2. Give  the  advantages  of  the  Cable’s.
1. What type of data will be reported in the Final Study?
2. Explain, by Market Researcher select the Boulder Colorado?

1. Define  “Advertising”.  Explain  the  Benefits  of  “Advertising”?
2. What  is  “Industrial  Advertising”?  Explain  the  objective  of  “Industrial advertising”?

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Construction Industry

Multiple Choices:
1. This effect is the result of a combination of a variety of factors that can be traced back to the
building’s design building materials, and the cumulative effects of low order characteristics on
human health:
a. Sick building syndrome
b. Ionizing radiation
c. Non-ionizing radiation
d. Pollutants
2. ____________ represents all aural sensations experienced by the user due to noise at all
frequencies, levels, and dynamics:
a. Hydrothermal discomfort
b. Acoustic inconvenience
c. Visual discomfort
d. Olfactory discomfort
3. This is the influence of the production of toxic compounds by the construction and operation on
the site itself & neighboring surface:
a. Air pollution
b. Soil pollution
c. Acid rain
d. Smog & other air pollution
4. ________ opens up new markets and news competition from the construction sector in the new
member states.
a. PU Enlargement
b. CU Enlargement
c. DU Enlargement
d. EU Enlargement
5. Installing energy efficient appliances & fixtures & changing irrigation practices & behavior can
reduce water consumption by 30 percent
a. Water conservative
b. Recycled content materials
c. Materials reuse

d. None of the above
6. This new system was intended to reduce manipulations in the tendering process:
a. Institutional Reforms
b. Mandatory Tendering
c. Mandatory Tender Evaluation System
d. Mandatory Construction Supervision
7. It provides a graphical representation of the individual measured values in a data set according to
the frequency of occurrence:
a. Check-sheet
b. Histogram
c. Checklists
d. Pareto Analysis
8. __________ sets out the vision for a future European Construction sectors as a key element in
achieving the Lisbon objectives:
a. Smart Construction
b. Building the future
c. Strategies for innovation
d. Strategic alliances
9. ECCREDI stands for _______________________________.
10. LEED stands for __________________________________.

Part Two:

1. What is ‘Mobile Document Management System’?
2. Briefly explain the Lean Production.
3. Define Green Building.
4. What is slowing down Penetration of Green Construction?
1. The cost-effective construction technologies would emerge as the most acceptable case of
sustainable technologies in India. Comment
2. Explain what lessons are required to be learned from International experiences and its own past
experiences in Construction Project.
1. Explain the construction of the Euro Tunnel.
2. State the benefits of the construction of the Euro Tunnel.


1. Explain the Government Role in BOT Projects. Give the Recommendations for Encouraging the
Private Sector Involvements in BOT Projects.
2. Explain the Role of Construction Industry in Climate Change.
3. What are the areas of design that are to be and shall be addressed in order to achieve sustainable
built environment?

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Project Management in Construction

Multiple Choices:
1. It included Manpower, material and machinery that is necessary to perform the work:
a. Scope
b. Quality
c. Resources
d. Completion time
2. In this analysis a project is formulated and appraised based on the estimates generated from past
data, experience & analysis.
a. Risk analysis
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Probability analysis
d. Economic analysis
3. It is a verbal written or on-line document that shows the up-to-date performance status of a task
that has been entrusted to a responsibility/accounting centre.
a. Trends Forecasting
b. Reporting Performance
c. Performance Variance Analysis
d. Recording Performance
4. In this contract, the architectural and engineering design and drawings are provided by the
Employer/Client to the contractor at the time of tendering as a part of the contract documents:
a. Build-only contracts
b. Build-own transfer contracts
c. Engineering Procurement
d. Construction Contract
5. These arise where no ground exists either in the contract or in common law:
a. Contractual claims
b. Extra contractual claims
c. Ex-gratia claims
d. None of the above
6. In this case, both the parties willingly discuss the dispute and arrive at a settlement without the
intervention of any third party:
a. Conciliation through negotiations
b. Conciliation through mediation
c. Conciliation by setting up Dispute Review Board (DRB)
d. Conciliation through others
7. The claim which is registered by giving a notice is known as:
a. Registering claims
b. Establishing claims
c. Presentation claims
d. None of the above
8. This term covers the entire electronic and electro-mechanical equipment used in the computerized
data processing system:
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Operators
d. Procedure
9. This enables the electronic transfer of a complete file from one computer to another:
a. Internet
b. Intranets
c. telnet
d. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
10. It is an assurance to the owner that selected the contractor will actually proceed with the contract
at the bid price:
a. performance Bonds
b. Bid Bonds
c. Claim Bonds
d. Contract Bonds

Part Two:

1. What are the main causes of a Project Failure?
2. What is Responsibility assignment Matrix (RAM) chart?
3. Define Professional Construction Management (PCM) approach.
4. Differentiate between Project Management & General Management.

1. Should you go with a department that has been chronically delaying when the contract has a large
incentive/penalty clause for on-time delivery?
2. Can you risk sending out a design to a supplier when the design is to be proved?
1. What are the significant features of HLL’s ad campaign ‘Project Bharat’?
2. How has HLL identified itself with India’s Economic Development?

1. Who is a Project Manager? Describe the Role of a Project Manager.
2. What is PMIS Report? Explain the benefits of establishing PMIS.

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Portfolio Management

Multiple Choices:
1. _________ is the market for issue of new securities.
a. Secondary Market
b. Consumer Market
c. Primary Market
d. Stock Market
2. Inflation is measured in terms of either wholesale price or_______.
a. Face Value
b. Retail Prices
c. MRP Value
d. Tax Value
3. _______ is basically a channel through which the savings of investors are made available to
corporations for investment.
a. Consumer Market
b. Stock Market
c. Retail Market
d. Whole sale Market
4. The share premium reserve is the amount paid by the ______ in excess of the par value of the
shares.
a. Shareholders
b. Stakeholders
c. Tax payers
d. Employees
5. _______ measures the return on sales and assets of the firm.
a. Liquidity Ratios
b. Turnover Ratios
c. Common Stock Ratios
d. Profitability Ratios
6. In which of the following chart, the closing price for each period is plotted as a point?
a. Line Chart
b. Bar Chart
c. Point and Figure Chart
d. R- Chart
7. Capital gains or losses arise when the investors sells his securities at a price____.
a. Similar from the Cost
b. Different from the Cost
c. Different from the Profit
d. Similar from the Loss.
8. A steep rise in price, followed by wide uniform fluctuations around an average price lead to
formulation of a ______.
a. Channel
b. Triangle
c. Flag
d. Wedge
9. CML stands for______.
a. Capital Market Life
b. Cost Market Line
c. Capital Market Line
d. Capital Measurement Line.
10. The security return on any day is defined as:-
a. Today’s Return = Today’s Price + Yesterday’s Price
Yesterday’s Price
b. Today’s Return = Today’s Cost―yesterday’s Cost
Yesterday’s Price
c. Today’s Return = Today’s Price + Today’s Cost
Yesterday’s Price
d. Today’s Return = Today’s Price ― yesterday’s Price
Yesterday’s Price

Part Two:

1. Discuss the characteristics of Stock Exchange in India.
2. Describe the Dow Theory.
3. Write a short note on Capital Market Line.
4. Mr. X has put Rs. 9000 in a five – year fixed deposit account with a bank. If the bank pays
interest at the rate of 15% per annum how much money would Mr. X receive on maturity of the
deposit?
5. Mr. Robert bought 90 shares of ICA Fertilizers Ltd. at Rs. 59 each on 1/1/2008. On 1/6/2008, the
company issued bonus shares in the ratio of 1:2. On 1/1/2010 Robert sold 35 of the bonus shares
for Rs. 78. What is the capital gain made by him ignoring indexation?

1. Analyze the characteristics of companies which have a small asset base and a low ratio of Market
to book Value?

2. Market capitalization of a company is a product of number of outstanding shares and the current
market price. Since the current market price (CMP) of the stock does not remain constant, is
investing for a long-term in a company looking at its present market value a good guiding
principle? Explain.

1. Why is the government reluctant to provide concession or remove tax on dividends declared by
dedicated gilt funds?
2. How can dedicated gilt funds be used to develop a retail segment for government securities?
3. If dedicated gilt funds are exempted from income tax for individuals, what will be the
implications of such measures on the retail gilt market?

1. Discuss the concept of Portfolio Insurance.
2. Discuss the fundamental notions of modern portfolio theory.
3. Consider a Rs. 50 crores mutual funds floated on 1-1-2003 with a life of 8 year. The fund
estimates that its annual outflow on account of dividend, operating and management costs would
amount to Rs.15.5 crores. Suppose that the rate of interest is 16%. What is the target duration for
this mutual fund?


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Investments Analysis and Behavior

Multiple Choices:
1. Which one of the following is the world’s first electronic stock market?
a. American Stock Exchange
b. Nasdaq National Market
c. Bombay stock Exchange
d. New York stock Exchange
2. The highest price that market maker is willing to pay to buy a security, is referred as:
a. Bid
b. Ask
c. Bid Size
d. Ask Size
3. IPOs stands for ________.
a. Indian Premier Offerings
b. Initial Public Offerings
c. Initial Premier Offerings
d. Initial Private Offerings
4. Under the securities act of ______, when a company makes a public offering, it must file a
registration statement with the SEC.
a. 1934
b. 1936
c. 1935
d. 1933
5. It is the chance of loss in the value of fixed- income investment following a rise in interest rates.
a. Risk
b. Credit Risk
c. Interest Rate Risk
d. Expected Return

6. Extreme changes in financial asset values tied to changing economic fundamentals are defined
as______.
a. Irrational Bubbles
b. Rational Bubbles
c. Market bubbles
d. None of the above
7. Rhythmic pattern of contraction and expansion in the overall economy is referred as ______.
a. Contraction
b. Expansion
c. Business Cycle
d. Recession
8. A measure that assesses what others are doing and suggests you should do the opposite, is:
a. Odd lot Indicators
b. Contrary Indicators
c. Mutual fund flow Indicators
d. Brokerage account credit balance indicators
9. Individuals and Institutions that purchase bonds for interest income and long term capital gains
are:
a. Primary Bond Market
b. Bond Dealers
c. Bond Investors
d. Bond Issuers
10. Funds that charge sales feels ranging from One to three percent, are called:
a. Low-Load Funds
b. No-Load Funds
c. Exchange Fee
d. Back- End Load

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘New York Stock Exchange’.
2. What do you understand by ‘Micro Cap Fraud”?
3. Explain the term ‘Treasury Bonds’.
4. Explain the meaning of ‘Mutual Fund’ and its advantages.

1. What do you think are the flaws in the public issue of Hughes Software? Enumerate them.
2. Can you construct a model for IPO process, which can help in price discovery in setting the
price at the IPO?

1. What are the unique features of ADRs that attract Indian companies to list on NASDAQ or
NYSE?
2. What is unsponsored ADR? Why did it become obsolete?

1. Discuss the concept of Macroeconomics environment. What are the major forces that drive the
economy?
2. Explain the following terms:
a. Capital Market Line
b. Security Market Line

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Compensation Management
Multiple Choices

1. A ________ is a hierarchy of jobs to which wage rates have been attached.
a. Wage Level
b. Wage Structure
c. Wage Index
d. Wage Policy

2. It is the wage which is above the minimum wage but below the living wage.
a. Basic wage
b. Overtime
c. Fair wage
d. Compensation

3. It is the process of minimizing the physical and perceptual loads imposed on people engaged in any type of work.
a. Motion Economy
b. Human Engineering
c. Value Analysis
d. Task Identity

4. It is the method which lists frequency of critical behaviors in an employee.
a. Performance Appraisal
b. Performance Matrix
c. 360 degree feedback
d. Management by Objectives

5. A map to illustrate behavioral parameters requires in competent performance is:
a. Competency Mapping
b. Balanced Score Card
c. Behavioral Observation Scale
d. Key Results Areas

6. In this type of team, team members are temporarily assigned some tasks to accomplish:
a. Cross functional Team
b. Hybrid team
c. Process Team
d. Parallel Team
7. The practice of comparing compensation with other competing to offer a competitive pay
package to employees, is refer as:
a. Broadband Policy
b. Bench Marking
c. Retention Policy
d. None of the above
8. Any wage cost not directly connected with the employees’ productive effort, performance
service, is called:
a. Allowances
b. Incentives
c. Fringe Benefits
d. Bonus
9. It is a company’s expenditure spent directly on employees excluding the cost of infrastructure:
a. Basic Salary
b. Cost to company
c. Allowances
d. Bonus
10. Strategy that provides overall guidelines for the organization is refer as:
a. HR Strategy
b. Functional strategy
c. Corporate strategy
d. Operational strategy

Part Two:

1. Discuss the terms ‘wages’ and ‘salary’. What factors determine the wage structure in an industrial
enterprise?
2. Define job design. Briefly explain various technique of job design.
3. What is a balanced Score Card.? What are its different perspectives?
4. Write a short note on 360-degree performance feedback.

1. Study the case and provide an alternative compensation design, which would redress the problem
faced by the two- wheeler major in Chennai.
1. Identify aspects of Denzel’s behavior that indicate that he was well-motivated.
2. Identify those actions taken by the Manager that helped to motivate Denzil.

1. What is compensation management? What goals or objectives does it follow?
2. What are some of the challenges which HR managers face in designing a compensation system?
3. What is a fringe benefit? Can it be made a part of an employee benefits plan?

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