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Pharmaceutical Marketing
Multiple Choices:
1. What is the full form of „IPR‟?
a. Intellectual property rights
b. Intellectual patent rights
c. Intellectual process rights
d. International patent rights
2. The environment that poses tremendous opportunities for new
products and services to alert
marketer is an _________ environment.
a. Ecological
b. Social
c. Technological
d. Competitive
3. Arrange these market opportunities analysis step by step:
i. Evaluate new opportunities in new segments
ii. Build on your strengths
iii. Explore new market opportunities
iv. Analyze your existing markets
a. i, ii,iii,iv
b. ii,iv,i,iii
c. iv,ii,iii,i
d. i,iii,iv,ii
4. Marketing virtually the same product with two or more brand
names is a strategy of_______
a. Family brand strategy
b. Multiple brand strategy
c. Individual brand
d. Private brand
5. The pricing that deals with the judgmental or subjective
elements of pricing is a_______
a. Cost-based pricing
b. Petition based pricing
c. Market based pricing
d. Demand based pricing
6. Which of the following is not a member of distribution
channel?
a. The Physician
b. Manufacturer
c. The consumer
d. The transporter
7. Arrange the communication process in order:
i. Medium
ii. Feedback
iii. Sender
iv. Receiver
v. Message
a) ii,iv,v,i,iii
b) iii,v,i,iv,ii
c) iv,i,iii,v,ii
d) iii,ii,iv,i,v
8. The strategy used to create a demand for a product within a
channel of distribution by appealing
directly to the consumer is a________
a. Pull strategy
b. Push strategy
c. Combination strategy
d. Competitive strategy
9. Toward off a competitive threat or to create an entry
barrier, some companies from different
power blocks may temporarily form a cartel it is termed
as_______
a. Franchise power
b. Integration power
c. Niche power
d. Coalition power
10. Which of the following „R‟ is not a part
of good management principle?
a. Resources
b. Recognition
c. Responsibility
d. Reward
Part Two:
1. Define the term “Marketing Communication”.
2. Differentiate between „Product Item‟ and „Product Mix‟.
3. Differentiate between „Cost Based Pricing‟ and „Demand Based Pricing‟.
4. Describe “Boston Matrix”.
Caselet 1
1. If you were in the position of Swami, what would have been
your decision? Justify keeping
qualitative aspects in mind.
2. Discuss the various other factors, which should be considered
while making capital investment
decision.
Caselet 2
1. Explain the terms in the context of the “Pharmaceutical
Marketing” :
a. Brand
b. Trademarks
c. Product line
2. Explain the important point that should be considered, while
packaging
Also
list the various dimensions of pharmaceutical market.
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Pharmaceuticals Industrial Management
Multiple Choices:
1. Which of the following not the principle of co-„ordination?
a. Principle of early beginning
b. Principle of continuity
c. Principle of time
d. Principle of reciprocity
2. Oral communication includes__________
3. Enthusiasm, co-operation, tact and skillful handling come
under:
4. Which of the following is the demerit of formal
communication?
5. Arrange the following into decision making process__________
a. Lecture
b. Poster
c. Union publication
d. Complaint procedure
a. Intellectual quality
b. Character quality
c. Psychological quality
d. Physical quality
a) Decay in accuracy
b) Time consuming
c) It is temporary
d) Fairly unsuitable
i. Conception
ii. Investigation
iii. Perception
iv. Selection
a) iv,i,iii, ii
b) ii,iv iii,i
c) iv,i,iii,ii
d) iii,i,ii, iv
6. FIFO stands for _______________.
7. Record of all item of material and good in the store is
recorded in which document?
a) Store ledger
b) Bin card
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
8. VED stands for ______________.
9. In the EOQ formula „C‟ is stand for-
a) Annual consumption
b) Cost of per unit of material
c) Cost per order
d) Storage
10. WTO stands for ________________.
Part Two:
1. What is questionnaire? Explain rules or guidelines for
designing a good questionnaire?
2. Define drug store management? „Discuss the arrangements of
drugs in drug store?
3. Name the various steps in the selection of a pharmacist?
4. What are the purposes of training given to a pharmacist?
Caselet 1
Questions:
1. Briefly explain the concept of CRM & SFA systems.
2. State the features of a Good SFA system.
3. Write down some CRM/SFA systems which are available in the
market for Pharmaceutical
Industry.
4. What are the benefits of CRM system?
Caselet 2
1. Define „Pharmaceutical marketing? Explain objectives and
importance of pharmaceutical
marketing.
2. Define „Advertising‟? What
are the advantages and disadvantages of advertising in
pharmaceutical
marketing?
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Distribution & Logistics Management
Multiple Choices:
1. It deals with the movement of finished goods from the last
point of production to the point of
consumption.
a. Marketing Channel Management
b. Logistics Management
c. Boundaries
d. Relationships
2. Which conflict is one of the major bottleneck in the
development & maintenance of partnering
channel relationship
a. Channel conflict
b. Management conflict
c. Logistics conflict
d. Distribution conflict
3. The phase of externally integrated business function era
(1990s onwards) is recognized as the era
of
a. Logistics Management
b. Human Resource Management
c. Financial Management
d. Supply Chain Management
4. ___________ may be conducted from time-to-time or at least
once in a year to know about
change in the expectation levels & actual performance
a. Customer Service Monitoring cell
b. Formal Customer Satisfaction Survey
c. Customer Conference
d. Customer Feedback System
5. The firm‟s incomplete or
inaccurate knowledge of customer‟s service
expectations is known as
a. Market Information Gap
b. Service Standards Gap
c. Service Performance Gap
d. Internal Communication Gap
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper of Logistics Management
6. This gap exist between the present level of customer service
offered and the corporate vision
about customer service
a. Gap 1
b. Gap 2
c. Gap 3
d. Gap 4
7. This stock refers to window display of an inventory in order
to stimulate demand and act as a
silent salesman
a. Decoupling stock
b. Psychic stock
c. Pipeline stock
d. None
8. This stock is also known as cycle or lot size stock
a. Working stock
b. Safety stock
c. Anticipation stock
d. None
9. In this system manufacturer is given the responsibility for
monitoring & controlling inventory
levels at the retail store level
a. Quick Response
b. Continuous Replenishment
c. Vendor-managed Inventory
d. Customer Relationship
10. This mode of transport is a very significant one but with a
very restricted scope. It is used
primarily for the shipment of liquid & gas
a. Airways
b. Railways
c. Pipelines
d. Seaways
Part Two:
1. What is Containerization and also mention the main features
of Containerization.
2. What is Third Party Logistics?
3. Differentiate between Public & Private Warehouse.
4. What is Logistics Information System?
Caselete 1
Questions:
1. Based on information for the current years, is Kansas City
the best location for a warehouse? If
not, what are the coordinates for a better location>? What
cost improvement can be expected
from the new location?
2. If by year 5 increases are expected of 25 percent in
warehouse outbound transport rates and 15
percent in warehouse inbound rates, would your decision change
about the warehouse
location?
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Business Logistics
Multiple Choices:
1. This decision involves mode of selection, shipment size,
routing & scheduling.
a. Inventory decision
b. Transport decision
c. Distribution decision
d. Facility location decision
2. This refers to the activities of gathering the information
needed about the products & services
desired & formally requesting the products to be purchased.
a. Order preparation
b. Order transmittal
c. Observation
d. Order entry
3. A very valuable function for the TMS is to suggest the
patterns for consolidating small shipments
into larger ones.
a. Mode selection
b. Routing
c. Scheduling
d. Freight Consolidation
4. This refers to transporting truck trailers on railroad
flatcars, usually over longer distances than
trucks normally haul.
a. Water
b. Pipeline
c. Roadways
d. Trailers on Flatcars
5. An operating philosophy that is an alternative to the use of
inventories for meeting the goal of
having the right goods at the right place at the right
time.
a. Just-in-time
b. Kanban
c. MRP Mechanies
d. None
6. A buyer may wish to negotiate the best possible price but not
take delivery of the full purchase
amount at one time.
a. Fixed sourcing
b. Contract buying
c. Flexible sourcing
d. Deal buying
7. Transportation rate structure, especially rate breaks,
influence the use of storage facilities is
known as___________
a. Storage function
b. Holding
c. Consolidation
d. Break-bulk
8. These warehouses are the most common type which handle a
broad range of merchandise.
a. Household warehouses
b. Miniwarehouses
c. Bulk storage warehouses
d. General merchandise warehouses
9. ___________ refers to the time that goods remain in the
transportation equipment during
delivery.
a. Leased space
b. Storage in transit
c. Load unitization
d. Space layout
10. It refers to the selection of more than one order on a
single pass through the stock.
a. Zoning
b. Batching
c. Sequencing
d. Modified area system
Part Two:
1. What is Bid-Rent Curves?
2. What is Mixed Integer linear Programming?
3. Differentiate between Lumpy and Regular Demand.
4. Write a short note on „Order Transmittal‟.
Caselete 1
Questions:
1. Develop a forecasting procedure for this service station. Why
did you select this method?
2. How should promotions, holidays, or other such periods where
fuel usage rates deviate form
normal patterns be handled in the forecast?
Caselete 2
Questions:
1. What replenishment order size, to the nearest 50 units,
should Walter place, given the
manufacturer‟s noninclusive
pricing policy?
2. Should Walter change his replenishment order size if the
manufacture‟s pricing policy were one
where the price in each quantities break includes all units
purchased?
END OF SECTION B
1. What is a heuristic Method? How are they useful in solving
warehouse location problem?
2. What is a “Virtual Inventory”? What is the planning problem
associated with such inventories?
3. Decision makers such as truck dispatchers, can go a long way
toward developing good truck routes &
schedule
by applying guideline principles. What are those principles for good Routing
& Scheduling?
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Project Management
1. During _________formal tools and techniques were developed to help and manage large
complex projects.
2. PERT stands for:
3. The most basic model of any Operating System is:
4. Overall complexity =
5. Relevant areas of the APM body of knowledge are:
a. Program Evaluation and Reverse Technique
b. Progress Evaluation and Review Technique
c. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
d. None of the above
a. Project Model
b. Input-output model
c. Output-input model
d. None of the above
a. Organizational complexity*resource complexity*technical complexity
b. Organizational complexity+technical complexity-resource complexity
c. Technical complexity+resource complexity/organizational complexity
d. Organizational complexity*resource complexity/technical complexity
a. Quality Management
b. Budgeting and cost Management
c. Project Cost Management
d. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
6. Costs associated with the planning process include:
7. CPA stands for:
a. Planer’s tools
b. Opportunity cost
c. Planned labour and associated expenses
d. All of the above
a. Critical Path Analysis
b. Common Path Analysis
c. Critical Path Algorithm
d. Common Problem Analysis
8. The project duration with the normal activity time is ____days.
9. The nature of the work organization is important as it:
a. Defines responsibility and authority
b. Outlines reporting arrangements
c. Determines the management overhead
d. All of the above
10. Matrix Management was invented by
d. Frederick Taylor
1. Define ‘Cost Estimating Techniques’.
2. Write a note on ‘Critical Path Analysis’.
3. Differentiate between General Management and Project Management.
4. What is ‘Team Life Cycle’?
Caselet 1
1. What further methods could have been used to generate ideas for the identification part of the risk
2. What should happen as the project progresses to manage risk?
Caselet 2
1. Identify the steps the firm took in this project. How did this contribute to the success?
2. How might the main adverse effects be identified?
1. What is the role of strategy in Project Management?
2. Identify the different roles that cost, price and profit can play in determining project costs.
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Project
Management in IT
1. The knowledge areas of Project Management Process Group are:
a. Planning and Initiating
b. Executing and Closing
c. Monitoring and Controlling
d. All of the above
2. To create a successful project, a project manager must consider:
d. All of the above
3. Which one of the following is not involved in the top ten skills or competencies of an effective
d. Technical skills
4. Another name of a phase exit is a _______ point.
5. Which process group includes activities from each of the nine knowledge areas?
6. The project team works together to create the ______.
a. Scope statement
c. WBS dictionary
d. Work package
7. __________ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.
c. Critical Path Method
8. Which of the following is not a key output of project cost management:
a. A cost estimate
b. A cost management plan
c. A cost baseline
d. None of the above
9. CMMI Stands for:
a. Capability Maturity Model Integration
b. Complex Maturity Model Integration
c. Common Maturity Model Information
d. Capability Maturity Model Information
10. A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of:
c. Earned value analysis
d. Weighted scoring model
1. Define Product Life Cycle.
2. What is Project Integration Model?
3. Write a note on Gantt charts.
4. What is Project Quality Management?
Caselet 1
1. What according to you are the factors that can hamper the profit growth related with the
2. Mention some strategies to further improve the project’s turnover.
Caselet 2
1. According to you what are the skills that needed for the project management of an organization?
2. How the six sigma project became a helpful tool in very sophisticated kind of project
1. What is cost? What is the importance of Project cost Management and explain basic principles of
Cost Management.
2. Define the following:
a. Resource Histograms
b. Project Communication Management
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Total Quality Management
1. In Total Quality
Management, what does the ‘Quality’ word mean?
a) Degree of excellence a product or service
b) Degree of performance
c) Degree of work`
d) Strength of the company
2. Quality can be quantified as :
a) Q = P % E
b) Q = P / E
c) Q = P * E
d) None
Where P = Performance, and E = Expectations
3. What could be the dimension of Quality?
a) Conformance
b) Durability
c) Aesthetics
d) All above
4. An effective TQM program is often referred to as :
a) Listening to the voice of consumers
b) Listening to the voice of customers
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
5. The most important consideration of an effective TQM is
a) Maximize profit
b) Provide high quality
c) Customer satisfaction
d) Minimize expenses
6. Who said this, “Even if you’re on the right track, you’ll get run over if you just sit there.”
a) Will Rogers
b) Shewhart
c) Joseph M. Juran
d) Phillip B. Crosby
7. “……………….” is we, not me; mission, not my show; vision, not division; and community,
Not domicile.”
a) Democracy
b) Membership
c) Management
d) Leadership
8. Knowledge is what to do; the desire is the motivation or wants to do; and the skill is the…..
a) When to do?
b) How to do?
c) What to do
d) None
9. A body of principles or standards of human conduct that govern the behavior of individuals &
organizations.
a) Synergy
b) Ethics
c) Conduct
d) Nature
10. Quality is judged by
a) Manager
b) Director
c) Government
d) Customers
11. A desired future stage of an organization is
a) Policies
b) Mission
c) Value
d) Vision
12. A customer could be
a) Internal
b) External
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
13. A particular tool for obtaining opinions & perceptions about organizations its products &
services.
a) Customer questionnaire
b) Personal interview
c) Telephonic interview
d) All above
14. Clients are the people for whom the company doing the survey, and customers are the ones
a) Who checks the product or services
b) Who use the product or services
c) Who takes the information about product
d) None
15. 90% of all customers contact comes through an organization’s
a) Front – line employees
b) Back – line employees
c) Manager
d) Director
16. The connection between customers satisfaction and the bottom line is
a) Customer interest
b) Customer retention
c) Customer requirement
d) None
17. A useful tool which provides information to improve processes an establish realistic goals
a) SERVQUAL
b) Quality function deployment
c) Gap analysis
d) None
18. Who said, “Customer don’t buy products, they buy result.”
a) Joseph J. Juran
b) Phillip B. Crosby
c) Peter Drucker
d) Will Rogers
19. A document that defines the team’s mission, boundaries, the background of the problem, team’s
authority, duties and resources.
a) Sponsor
b) Team charter
c) Team manager
d) Team leader
20. When one person proposes a decision and another agrees, we have the
a) Non-decision
b) Minority rule decision
c) Unilateral decision
d) Handclasp decision
21. Item that includes a process, such as brainstorming, affinity diagram, discussion, the presenters
and times guidelines is
a) Company’s logo
b) Company’s Name
c) An agenda
d) Moto
22. The most difficult stage as members start to realize the amount of works that lies ahead is
a) Forming
b) Worming
c) Performing
d) Storming
23. The S.T.A.R. = ‘Suggestions’, ‘Team’, ‘Actions’, ‘…………..’.
a) Response
b) Reliability
c) Results
d) None
24. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive
world is
a) Change
b) Repair
c) Revenue
d) None
25. The planning component of process involvement begins with
a) Internal customers
b) External customers
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
26. Which problem occurs, when a structured system having standardized inputs, processes, and
outputs is performing unacceptably from the user’s view point?
a) Unstructured problems
b) Product design problems
c) Compliance problems
d) Process design problems
27. PDSA stands for
a) Plan – Do – Study – Act
b) Process Development Structured Analysis
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
28. Kaizen improvement focuses on which principle to produce only the units in the right quantities,
at the right time, and with the right resources.
a) Do – it – fast
b) Just – in –time
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
29. The Greek symbol for the statistical measurement of dispersion called standard deviation
a) α
b) β
c) λ
d) σ
30. Competency levels of six sigma individuals use the Karate designations of
a) Green Belt
b) Black Belt
c) Master Black Belt
d) All above
31. The key element to a partnering relationship is
a) Long – term commitment
b) Trust
c) Shared vision
d) All above
32. Sourcing, which is the use of two or more suppliers for an item is
a) Sole sourcing
b) Multiple sourcing
c) Single sourcing
d) None
33. The fourth and final phase, i.e., identity check occurs
a) When the customers perform identity checks
b) When the suppliers perform identity checks
c) When both the customers & suppliers perform identity checks
d) None
34. A supplier rating system is based on
a) Quality
b) Delivery
c) Service
d) All above
35. The score of a supplier can be calculated as
a) Performance matrix * price index
b) Target price * actual price
c) Performance matrix * actual price
d) None
36. OEMs must maintain supply chain development through
a) Zero defects
b) 100 % on time delivery
c) A process for continuous improvement
d) All above
37. A technique of ‘Performing Measure Presentation’ benchmarks the process & shows favorable &
unfavorable trends in the measure
a) Control chart
b) Time service graph
c) Capability index
d) Cost of poor quality
38. Costs can generally be considered the cost incurred for the inspection and/or test of purchased
suppliers or service to determine acceptability for use.
a) Operations appraisal costs
b) External appraisal costs
c) Miscellaneous quality evaluations
d) Purchasing appraisal costs
39. Purchasing failure cost are incurred due to
a) Defected item rejects
b) Purchased item rejects
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
40. The efficiency of a business is measured in terms of
a) Rupees
b) Paisa
c) Dollars
d) Pound
41. An annual award to recognize U.S. organizations for performance excellence
a) Golden Peacock Award
b) IMC Ramakrishna Bajaj National Award
c) Malcolm Baldrige National Award
d) None
42. In the implementation of a quality cost program, to determine if the program can be beneficial to
the organization is
a) Last step
b) First step
c) Second step
d) None
43. An increasingly popular tool, used extensively by both manufacturing & service organizations,
including Xerox, AT&T, Motorola, Ford & Toyota to reach at a target point
a) SERQUAL
b) Benchmarking
c) QFD
d) QC
44. When deciding what to benchmark, it is best to begin by thinking about the
a) Mission and vision
b) Vision and critical success factors
c) Vision
d) Mission and critical success factors
45. Benchmarking can be
a) Internal
b) Competitive
c) Process
d) All above
46. Technique of conducting original research is
a) Questionnaires
b) Site visits
c) Focus on groups
d) All above
47. Benchmarking is waste of time, if
a) Change does not occur as a result
b) Change occurs a result
c) There is no achievement
d) Can’t say
48. E – learning is offered in a variety of formats such as
a) CD – ROM based
b) LAN based
c) Web based
d) All above
49. The International Organization for Standardizations (ISO) was founded in Geneva, Switzerland,
in
a) 1952
b) 1948
c) 1961
d) 1946
50. The current quality system is
a) AS9100
b) ISO / TS 16949
c) TL 9000
d) All above
51. The supply chain is defined as
a) Suppliers → Organization → Customers
b) Organization → Suppliers → Customers
c) Suppliers → Customers → Organization
d) Organization → Customers → Suppliers
52. Which is not a step of ‘Implementation’ of a Quality Management System?
a) Top Management Commitment
b) Appoint an implementation team
c) Writing the documents
d) Appoint the management representatives
53. Technical committee 207 (TC 207) is formed by
a) RAB
b) SAGE
c) ASQ
d) None
54. What is the global benefit of environmental management system?
a) Facilitate & remove trade barriers
b) Improve environmental performance of planet earth
c) Build consensus
d) All above
55. ‘Closely knit’ describes
a) TNC’s eternal relationship
b) TNC’s internal relationship
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
56. ………………, a golf equipment manufacturer recently was certified to both ISO 9000 & ISO
14000.
a) Escorts
b) Hyundai
c) Ping
d) Tata
57. To ensure that EMS conforms to plans & is being properly implemented & maintained, is the
purpose of
a) Records
b) EMS Audit
c) Monitoring & Measuring
d) Nonconformance & Corrective
58. The Quality Function Deployment uses, to express information
a) Algebric values
b) Numeric values
c) Alphanumeric values
d) None
59. Quality Function deployment is a planning tool used to
a) Maximizing the profit
b) Minimizing the expenses
c) Fulfill customer expectations
d) Making goodwill
60. Which source of customers describes their expectations?
a) Voice of customers
b) Actions of customers
c) Nature of customers
61. Which method is well suited for gathering a large amount of data?
a) Interrelationship diagram
b) Tree diagrams
c) Cause – and – Effect diagrams
d) All above
62. The primary planning tool used in QFD is
a) QC
b) Gap Analysis
c) Benchmarking
d) HOQ
63. The absolute weight is calculated by
a) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)*(sales points)
b) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)
c) AW = (scale up factor)*(sales points)
d) None
64. Why the term ‘Sequential Engineering’ is used?
a) To describe the profit
b) To describe the process
c) To describe the performance
d) To describe the quality
65. The benefit of Quality by Design techniques is
a) Faster production development
b) Better quality
c) Less work in progress
d) All above
66. Tools which are mostly used in quality be design technique
a) CAD
b) CAM
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
67. A software which provides a means for individuals to communicate their opinions within a group
in a structured & creative manner is
a) Enterprise resource planning software
b) Product data management software
c) Electronic meeting software
d) None
68. The finite element analysis software packages are3 widely regarded as the most powerful tool
available for
a) A design engineer
b) Documentation
c) Production
d) All above
69. FMEA. Is an analytical technique to identify foreseeable failure modes of a product or process &
plan for their elimination stands for
a) Failure Modification & Effect Analysis
b) Foreign Money Exchange and Analysis
c) Failure Mode & Effect Analysis
d) None
70. The type of FMEA is
a) Design FMEA
b) Process FMEA
c) Equipment FMEA
d) All above
71. How many stages of FMEA?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
72. The effective of failure as perceived by the customer are called
a) Minor effect(s) of failure
b) Potential effect(s) of failure
c) High effe4ct(s) of failure
d) All above
73. Which section of the document is a relative of the assessment of the ability of the design control
to detect either a potential cause or the subsequent failure mode before the component, sub
system, or system is completed for production.
a) Occurrence(O)
b) Classification (CLASS)
c) Detection (D)
d) Security (S)
74. The concept ‘Caveat Emptor’, that resulted from Adam Smith’s “invisible Hand” theory of
commercial regulation, means
a) Let the buyers beware
b) Let the seller beware
c) Let the consumer beware
d) Let the government beware
75. The first requirement of an expert technical witness is to be ……………………… in the area of
testimony.
a) Non – technical
b) Perfect
c) Technically competent
d) Knowledgeable
76. Technique, which is a product safety design technique is
a) Fault free analysis
b) Fail – safe concepts
c) Coded identifications for traceability
d) All above
77. If the product is referred to as “safe” & a person is injured that action establishes that the product
is
a) Good
b) Best
c) Defective
d) Not safe
78. A communication between market place and the organization concerning the performance of the
product is
a) A complaint
b) A claim
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
79. An adequate prevention program can substantially reduce the risk of damaging litigation. This
statement is as same as proverb
a) A ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure
b) Barking dogs seldom bite
c) Old is gold
d) Two birds with single stone
80. The goal of TPM is
a) Maintaining & improving equipment capacity
b) Maintaining equipment for life
c) Encouraging input from all employees
d) All above
81. Operating time can be calculated as
a) T = P + D
b) T = D – P
c) T = P – D
d) T = P * D
Where P = Planned operating time, D = Downtime
82. A tool, which could be a key to finding the root cause of a problem by focusing on the process
rather than on people is
a) Brain storming
b) Why Why tool
c) CAM
d) Tree Diagram
83. A tool, which is used to reduce any broad objective into increasing levels of details in order to
achieve the objective is
a) Matrix Diagram
b) Tree Diagram
c) Brain storming
d) Why Why tool
84. Prioritization matrices based on weighted criteria using a combination of
a) Tree & Matrix Diagram
b) Tree & Affinity Diagram
c) Affinity & Matrix Diagram
d) Brainstorming & Why Why Tool
85. The tool which can be used in a wide variety of situations and are simple to use by individuals
and / or teams is
a) Why Why tool
b) Forced Field Analysis
c) Nominal Group Technique
d) All above
86. The activity network diagram is also known as
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) Arrow diagram
d) All above
87. PDPC stands for
a) Process Decision Program Chart
b) Practice Decision Program Chart
c) Process Development
d) Path Decision Process Chart
88. A Pareto diagram is a
a) Ending Process
b) Critical Process
c) Never Ending Process
d) Easy Process
89. Diagrams, which are used to investigate either a “bad” effect and to take action to correct the
cause that are effe4ct & to learn those causes that are responsible
a) Pareto diagrams
b) Tree diagrams
c) PERT diagrams
d) Cause & Effect diagrams
90. Which is the first “statistical” SPC technique?
a) Histogram
b) Ungrouped Data
c) Check Sheets
d) None
91. An arrangement of raw numerical data in ascending or descending order of magnitude is
a) Structure
b) Link List
c) Queue
d) Array
92. Statistics is defined as the science that deals with
a) Collection
b) Tabulation
c) Presentation
d) All above
93. Which tool of statistics describes how the data are spread out or scattered on which each side of
central value?
a) Measures of dispersion
b) Forced field analysis
c) Nominal group technique
d) Tree diagram
94. Experimental design can be used to
a) Improve a process by increasing its performance and
Eliminate troubles
b) Identify the variables to control the process
c) Improve an existing product or develop a new product
d) All above
95. A statistical decision making process in which inferences are made about the population from a
sample is
a) Hypothesis Testing
b) Orthogonal Design
c) t- reference Distribution
d) None
96. What does the word ‘Orthogonal’ mean?
a) The final product is experimented
b) The design of the actual product is based
c) The experimental design is balanced
d) None
97. In any statistical study, analysis & calculations yield a single point or value, which is called a
a) Point estimate
b) Analytical point
c) Full factor
d) None
98. Which is a stage of product development?
a) Process design
b) Product design
c) Production
d) All above
99. Which is the fundamental part of the Taguchi approach?
a) Iron casting
b) Grill
c) Parameter design
d) Confirmation run
100. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive
world is called
a) Change
b) Renewal
c) Enhancement
d) None
a) Degree of excellence a product or service
b) Degree of performance
c) Degree of work`
d) Strength of the company
2. Quality can be quantified as :
a) Q = P % E
b) Q = P / E
c) Q = P * E
d) None
Where P = Performance, and E = Expectations
3. What could be the dimension of Quality?
a) Conformance
b) Durability
c) Aesthetics
d) All above
4. An effective TQM program is often referred to as :
a) Listening to the voice of consumers
b) Listening to the voice of customers
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
5. The most important consideration of an effective TQM is
a) Maximize profit
b) Provide high quality
c) Customer satisfaction
d) Minimize expenses
6. Who said this, “Even if you’re on the right track, you’ll get run over if you just sit there.”
a) Will Rogers
b) Shewhart
c) Joseph M. Juran
d) Phillip B. Crosby
7. “……………….” is we, not me; mission, not my show; vision, not division; and community,
Not domicile.”
a) Democracy
b) Membership
c) Management
d) Leadership
8. Knowledge is what to do; the desire is the motivation or wants to do; and the skill is the…..
a) When to do?
b) How to do?
c) What to do
d) None
9. A body of principles or standards of human conduct that govern the behavior of individuals &
organizations.
a) Synergy
b) Ethics
c) Conduct
d) Nature
10. Quality is judged by
a) Manager
b) Director
c) Government
d) Customers
11. A desired future stage of an organization is
a) Policies
b) Mission
c) Value
d) Vision
12. A customer could be
a) Internal
b) External
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
13. A particular tool for obtaining opinions & perceptions about organizations its products &
services.
a) Customer questionnaire
b) Personal interview
c) Telephonic interview
d) All above
14. Clients are the people for whom the company doing the survey, and customers are the ones
a) Who checks the product or services
b) Who use the product or services
c) Who takes the information about product
d) None
15. 90% of all customers contact comes through an organization’s
a) Front – line employees
b) Back – line employees
c) Manager
d) Director
16. The connection between customers satisfaction and the bottom line is
a) Customer interest
b) Customer retention
c) Customer requirement
d) None
17. A useful tool which provides information to improve processes an establish realistic goals
a) SERVQUAL
b) Quality function deployment
c) Gap analysis
d) None
18. Who said, “Customer don’t buy products, they buy result.”
a) Joseph J. Juran
b) Phillip B. Crosby
c) Peter Drucker
d) Will Rogers
19. A document that defines the team’s mission, boundaries, the background of the problem, team’s
authority, duties and resources.
a) Sponsor
b) Team charter
c) Team manager
d) Team leader
20. When one person proposes a decision and another agrees, we have the
a) Non-decision
b) Minority rule decision
c) Unilateral decision
d) Handclasp decision
21. Item that includes a process, such as brainstorming, affinity diagram, discussion, the presenters
and times guidelines is
a) Company’s logo
b) Company’s Name
c) An agenda
d) Moto
22. The most difficult stage as members start to realize the amount of works that lies ahead is
a) Forming
b) Worming
c) Performing
d) Storming
23. The S.T.A.R. = ‘Suggestions’, ‘Team’, ‘Actions’, ‘…………..’.
a) Response
b) Reliability
c) Results
d) None
24. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive
world is
a) Change
b) Repair
c) Revenue
d) None
25. The planning component of process involvement begins with
a) Internal customers
b) External customers
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
26. Which problem occurs, when a structured system having standardized inputs, processes, and
outputs is performing unacceptably from the user’s view point?
a) Unstructured problems
b) Product design problems
c) Compliance problems
d) Process design problems
27. PDSA stands for
a) Plan – Do – Study – Act
b) Process Development Structured Analysis
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
28. Kaizen improvement focuses on which principle to produce only the units in the right quantities,
at the right time, and with the right resources.
a) Do – it – fast
b) Just – in –time
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
29. The Greek symbol for the statistical measurement of dispersion called standard deviation
a) α
b) β
c) λ
d) σ
30. Competency levels of six sigma individuals use the Karate designations of
a) Green Belt
b) Black Belt
c) Master Black Belt
d) All above
31. The key element to a partnering relationship is
a) Long – term commitment
b) Trust
c) Shared vision
d) All above
32. Sourcing, which is the use of two or more suppliers for an item is
a) Sole sourcing
b) Multiple sourcing
c) Single sourcing
d) None
33. The fourth and final phase, i.e., identity check occurs
a) When the customers perform identity checks
b) When the suppliers perform identity checks
c) When both the customers & suppliers perform identity checks
d) None
34. A supplier rating system is based on
a) Quality
b) Delivery
c) Service
d) All above
35. The score of a supplier can be calculated as
a) Performance matrix * price index
b) Target price * actual price
c) Performance matrix * actual price
d) None
36. OEMs must maintain supply chain development through
a) Zero defects
b) 100 % on time delivery
c) A process for continuous improvement
d) All above
37. A technique of ‘Performing Measure Presentation’ benchmarks the process & shows favorable &
unfavorable trends in the measure
a) Control chart
b) Time service graph
c) Capability index
d) Cost of poor quality
38. Costs can generally be considered the cost incurred for the inspection and/or test of purchased
suppliers or service to determine acceptability for use.
a) Operations appraisal costs
b) External appraisal costs
c) Miscellaneous quality evaluations
d) Purchasing appraisal costs
39. Purchasing failure cost are incurred due to
a) Defected item rejects
b) Purchased item rejects
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
40. The efficiency of a business is measured in terms of
a) Rupees
b) Paisa
c) Dollars
d) Pound
41. An annual award to recognize U.S. organizations for performance excellence
a) Golden Peacock Award
b) IMC Ramakrishna Bajaj National Award
c) Malcolm Baldrige National Award
d) None
42. In the implementation of a quality cost program, to determine if the program can be beneficial to
the organization is
a) Last step
b) First step
c) Second step
d) None
43. An increasingly popular tool, used extensively by both manufacturing & service organizations,
including Xerox, AT&T, Motorola, Ford & Toyota to reach at a target point
a) SERQUAL
b) Benchmarking
c) QFD
d) QC
44. When deciding what to benchmark, it is best to begin by thinking about the
a) Mission and vision
b) Vision and critical success factors
c) Vision
d) Mission and critical success factors
45. Benchmarking can be
a) Internal
b) Competitive
c) Process
d) All above
46. Technique of conducting original research is
a) Questionnaires
b) Site visits
c) Focus on groups
d) All above
47. Benchmarking is waste of time, if
a) Change does not occur as a result
b) Change occurs a result
c) There is no achievement
d) Can’t say
48. E – learning is offered in a variety of formats such as
a) CD – ROM based
b) LAN based
c) Web based
d) All above
49. The International Organization for Standardizations (ISO) was founded in Geneva, Switzerland,
in
a) 1952
b) 1948
c) 1961
d) 1946
50. The current quality system is
a) AS9100
b) ISO / TS 16949
c) TL 9000
d) All above
51. The supply chain is defined as
a) Suppliers → Organization → Customers
b) Organization → Suppliers → Customers
c) Suppliers → Customers → Organization
d) Organization → Customers → Suppliers
52. Which is not a step of ‘Implementation’ of a Quality Management System?
a) Top Management Commitment
b) Appoint an implementation team
c) Writing the documents
d) Appoint the management representatives
53. Technical committee 207 (TC 207) is formed by
a) RAB
b) SAGE
c) ASQ
d) None
54. What is the global benefit of environmental management system?
a) Facilitate & remove trade barriers
b) Improve environmental performance of planet earth
c) Build consensus
d) All above
55. ‘Closely knit’ describes
a) TNC’s eternal relationship
b) TNC’s internal relationship
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
56. ………………, a golf equipment manufacturer recently was certified to both ISO 9000 & ISO
14000.
a) Escorts
b) Hyundai
c) Ping
d) Tata
57. To ensure that EMS conforms to plans & is being properly implemented & maintained, is the
purpose of
a) Records
b) EMS Audit
c) Monitoring & Measuring
d) Nonconformance & Corrective
58. The Quality Function Deployment uses, to express information
a) Algebric values
b) Numeric values
c) Alphanumeric values
d) None
59. Quality Function deployment is a planning tool used to
a) Maximizing the profit
b) Minimizing the expenses
c) Fulfill customer expectations
d) Making goodwill
60. Which source of customers describes their expectations?
a) Voice of customers
b) Actions of customers
c) Nature of customers
61. Which method is well suited for gathering a large amount of data?
a) Interrelationship diagram
b) Tree diagrams
c) Cause – and – Effect diagrams
d) All above
62. The primary planning tool used in QFD is
a) QC
b) Gap Analysis
c) Benchmarking
d) HOQ
63. The absolute weight is calculated by
a) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)*(sales points)
b) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)
c) AW = (scale up factor)*(sales points)
d) None
64. Why the term ‘Sequential Engineering’ is used?
a) To describe the profit
b) To describe the process
c) To describe the performance
d) To describe the quality
65. The benefit of Quality by Design techniques is
a) Faster production development
b) Better quality
c) Less work in progress
d) All above
66. Tools which are mostly used in quality be design technique
a) CAD
b) CAM
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
67. A software which provides a means for individuals to communicate their opinions within a group
in a structured & creative manner is
a) Enterprise resource planning software
b) Product data management software
c) Electronic meeting software
d) None
68. The finite element analysis software packages are3 widely regarded as the most powerful tool
available for
a) A design engineer
b) Documentation
c) Production
d) All above
69. FMEA. Is an analytical technique to identify foreseeable failure modes of a product or process &
plan for their elimination stands for
a) Failure Modification & Effect Analysis
b) Foreign Money Exchange and Analysis
c) Failure Mode & Effect Analysis
d) None
70. The type of FMEA is
a) Design FMEA
b) Process FMEA
c) Equipment FMEA
d) All above
71. How many stages of FMEA?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
72. The effective of failure as perceived by the customer are called
a) Minor effect(s) of failure
b) Potential effect(s) of failure
c) High effe4ct(s) of failure
d) All above
73. Which section of the document is a relative of the assessment of the ability of the design control
to detect either a potential cause or the subsequent failure mode before the component, sub
system, or system is completed for production.
a) Occurrence(O)
b) Classification (CLASS)
c) Detection (D)
d) Security (S)
74. The concept ‘Caveat Emptor’, that resulted from Adam Smith’s “invisible Hand” theory of
commercial regulation, means
a) Let the buyers beware
b) Let the seller beware
c) Let the consumer beware
d) Let the government beware
75. The first requirement of an expert technical witness is to be ……………………… in the area of
testimony.
a) Non – technical
b) Perfect
c) Technically competent
d) Knowledgeable
76. Technique, which is a product safety design technique is
a) Fault free analysis
b) Fail – safe concepts
c) Coded identifications for traceability
d) All above
77. If the product is referred to as “safe” & a person is injured that action establishes that the product
is
a) Good
b) Best
c) Defective
d) Not safe
78. A communication between market place and the organization concerning the performance of the
product is
a) A complaint
b) A claim
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
79. An adequate prevention program can substantially reduce the risk of damaging litigation. This
statement is as same as proverb
a) A ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure
b) Barking dogs seldom bite
c) Old is gold
d) Two birds with single stone
80. The goal of TPM is
a) Maintaining & improving equipment capacity
b) Maintaining equipment for life
c) Encouraging input from all employees
d) All above
81. Operating time can be calculated as
a) T = P + D
b) T = D – P
c) T = P – D
d) T = P * D
Where P = Planned operating time, D = Downtime
82. A tool, which could be a key to finding the root cause of a problem by focusing on the process
rather than on people is
a) Brain storming
b) Why Why tool
c) CAM
d) Tree Diagram
83. A tool, which is used to reduce any broad objective into increasing levels of details in order to
achieve the objective is
a) Matrix Diagram
b) Tree Diagram
c) Brain storming
d) Why Why tool
84. Prioritization matrices based on weighted criteria using a combination of
a) Tree & Matrix Diagram
b) Tree & Affinity Diagram
c) Affinity & Matrix Diagram
d) Brainstorming & Why Why Tool
85. The tool which can be used in a wide variety of situations and are simple to use by individuals
and / or teams is
a) Why Why tool
b) Forced Field Analysis
c) Nominal Group Technique
d) All above
86. The activity network diagram is also known as
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) Arrow diagram
d) All above
87. PDPC stands for
a) Process Decision Program Chart
b) Practice Decision Program Chart
c) Process Development
d) Path Decision Process Chart
88. A Pareto diagram is a
a) Ending Process
b) Critical Process
c) Never Ending Process
d) Easy Process
89. Diagrams, which are used to investigate either a “bad” effect and to take action to correct the
cause that are effe4ct & to learn those causes that are responsible
a) Pareto diagrams
b) Tree diagrams
c) PERT diagrams
d) Cause & Effect diagrams
90. Which is the first “statistical” SPC technique?
a) Histogram
b) Ungrouped Data
c) Check Sheets
d) None
91. An arrangement of raw numerical data in ascending or descending order of magnitude is
a) Structure
b) Link List
c) Queue
d) Array
92. Statistics is defined as the science that deals with
a) Collection
b) Tabulation
c) Presentation
d) All above
93. Which tool of statistics describes how the data are spread out or scattered on which each side of
central value?
a) Measures of dispersion
b) Forced field analysis
c) Nominal group technique
d) Tree diagram
94. Experimental design can be used to
a) Improve a process by increasing its performance and
Eliminate troubles
b) Identify the variables to control the process
c) Improve an existing product or develop a new product
d) All above
95. A statistical decision making process in which inferences are made about the population from a
sample is
a) Hypothesis Testing
b) Orthogonal Design
c) t- reference Distribution
d) None
96. What does the word ‘Orthogonal’ mean?
a) The final product is experimented
b) The design of the actual product is based
c) The experimental design is balanced
d) None
97. In any statistical study, analysis & calculations yield a single point or value, which is called a
a) Point estimate
b) Analytical point
c) Full factor
d) None
98. Which is a stage of product development?
a) Process design
b) Product design
c) Production
d) All above
99. Which is the fundamental part of the Taguchi approach?
a) Iron casting
b) Grill
c) Parameter design
d) Confirmation run
100. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive
world is called
a) Change
b) Renewal
c) Enhancement
d) None
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Total Quality Management
Multiple Choices:
1. If the amount of energy available for the intended function be ‘a’ and the amount of energy
wasted be ‘b’ then Signal to noise ratio will be:
a. a/b
b. (a-b)/b
c. b/a
d. (a+b)/b
2. The number of orthogonal arrays added by Taguchi to the original work of Sir R A Fischer, was:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 4
3. If the α for each t test be 0.2 then for 4 ‘t’ tests the probability of a correct decision will be:
a. 0.0008
b. 0.0016
c. 0.0002
d. None of the above
4. This is not a rapid prototype technique.
a. Stereo lithography
b. Solid ground curing
c. Solid ground searching
d. None of the above
5. The multiplication of importance of customer, scale up facture and sales point is called:
a. Relative weight
b. Absolute weight
c. Weight of scale
d. Weight of sales
6. In documentation Pyramid all documentation moves from one level to next in:
a. Ascending order
b. Descending order
c. One down one up fashion
d. Two down one up fashion
7. The quality system other than ISO 9000 is:
a. PS 9000
b. CS 9000
c. AS 9000
d. LS 9000
8. In the 5 S methodology for workplace organization, ‘Seiton’ stands for:
a. Proper arrangement
b. Orderliness
c. Personal cleanliness
d. Discipline
9. The basic plan-do-study-act (PDSA) cycle was first developed by:
a. Deming
b. Shewhart
c. Juran
d. Fleming.
10. One of the best approach having three components, can be used for process improvement, is:
a. Loran trilogy
b. Turan trilogy
c. Sudan triology
d. Juran triology
Part Two:
1. Write a note on ‘Kano model’ of customer requirement.
2. Define Herzberg’s two factor theory.
3. Write a note on Pareto analysis.
4. What do understand by Benchmarking?
5. Define “Degree of freedom”.
1. Discuss the various
labour troubles which compelled the company management and its Dutch
parents to decide to wind up the Calcutta plant. What were the problems?
parents to decide to wind up the Calcutta plant. What were the problems?
2. How would you apply the Phillips India policy to help other electronics companies in India to
implement TQM?
1. What is the Top
initiative in Siemens AG? Discuss it various aspects.
2. What are the Top eight initiatives for innovation in Siemens AG? Evaluate their impact on
quality and TQM.
1. Mechanical products such as cars do break down. Cars often are serviced by the car dealer.
How can a car dealer use the service department to enhance future car sales?
2. Using trade journals, professional society magazines, periodicals, and your networking
ability, identify two examples of quality by design success stories and explain their results.
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Telecommunications Essentials
Multiple Choices:
1. This band transmits uplink around the 6GHz range & downlink around the 4GHz range.
a. C-Band
b. Ku-Band
c. Ka-Band
d. L-Band
2. On these trunks, traffic flows in both the incoming & outgoing directions.
a. DOD trunks
b. DID trunks
c. Two-way local exchange trunks
d. None of the above
3. As networks become more digitized, fewer conversions take place, and voice can be carried at a
higher quality over fewer flower bits per second.
a. PCM
b. ADPCM
c. DCSs
d. DLCs
4. _____________ is a standard for storage & retrieval of moving pictures & audio on storage
media.
a. MPEG-1
b. MPEG-2
c. MPEG-4
d. MPEG-7
5. It is an open standard for digital video transmission over cable that was defined by ETSI &
ratified in 1994.
a. DVB-H
b. DVB-T
c. DVB-C
d. DVB-S & DVB-S2
6. It is the oldest of DSL technologies & a symmetrical service, measuring that it provides equal
bandwidth in the both directions.
a. HDSL
b. SDSL
c. G. SHDSL
d. ADSL
7. It is the newest spread spectrum technique, and its main purpose is to resolve the problems.
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. OFDM
d. ADPCM
8. It is a new concept in multimedia mobile broadcasting service, converging broadcasting and
telecommunications.
a. DMB
b. OFDM
c. VF
d. None of the above
9. It is a Niche broadband wireless technology that at first appears to complete for market share with
mobile WiMax & Mobile-Fi.
a. HiperAccess
b. HiperMan
c. iBursrt
d. ETSI BRAN
10. In-FUSIO’s (www. Infusion.com) __________ is best known for its business model, which
supports a variety of revenue models, including pay-per-level and SMS high scores.
a. JavaME
b. BREW
c. EXEn
d. Mophun
Part Two:
1. State the protocols & implementations which are associated with Mesh Network.
2. Write a short note on HFC Architecture and draw the topology of an HFC network.
3. What is the IP multimedia system?
4. What is Symmetric Encryptions?
5. Briefly explain the major layers of IPT network taxonomy.
1. How does this case demonstrate
the importance of data transmission rates in business? Does it
imply that people in Japan are willing to accept lower data rates than people in the U.S.?
2. Some people say that the Internet fosters globalization by providing world wide access to the
Web. Discuss arguments for and against this statement.
imply that people in Japan are willing to accept lower data rates than people in the U.S.?
2. Some people say that the Internet fosters globalization by providing world wide access to the
Web. Discuss arguments for and against this statement.
1. Why might portable
computing and desktop computing call for different types of microprocessors?
2. Review the performance variables. In which areas did the Transmeta chip try to excel?
1. DNS is a distributed database system that operates on the basis of a hierarchy of names. Explain
the statement & also explain how DNS servers work.
2. Review the performance variables. In which areas did the Transmeta chip try to excel?
1. DNS is a distributed database system that operates on the basis of a hierarchy of names. Explain
the statement & also explain how DNS servers work.
2. Explain the workings of GSM, UWC, CdmaOne & PDC technologies of digital cellular.
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